Assessment Test


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1. Using sheet 25 in the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 5 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 33 lbs.

 
 

2. Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatches 5 & 7 while using a single belt loader, to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 25'-02"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.)

 
 

3. A half-height container is used __________.

 
 

4. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding a twin pedestal crane set?

 
 
 
 

5. You are going to load bales of wool having a stowage factor of 96 in #3 lower hold which has a bale cubic of 84,000. How many tons of wool can be stowed in the compartment?

 
 

6. The securing of passenger cars on a Ro-Ro vessel requires __________.

 
 
 
 

7. The advantage(s) of using wire rope lashing on vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels is that it __________.

 
 
 
 

8. You are going to load bales of wool having a stowage factor of 100 in #3 lower hold which has a bale cubic of 72,000. How many tons of the wool can be stowed in the compartment, assuming 10% broken stowage?

 
 

9. You are ordering ship's stores. Which statement is TRUE?

 
 

10. Which statement concerning sweat damage in containers is TRUE?

 
 

11. You are in a tropical port. The refrigeration machinery on a container loaded with air-cooled fruit fails. It cannot be repaired for 18 to 24 hours. Which step should you take to reduce the temperature rise and spoilage of the fruit?

 
 

12. What is an example of a fundamental objective of cargo stowage?

 
 

13. During which condition should the operator of a pedestal crane shutdown operations?

 
 
 
 

14. "Cribbing" is __________.

 
 

15. A "wet cargo" refers to __________.

 
 

16. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE concerning cranes being installed on the centerline of vessels?

 
 
 
 

17. The signal man assisting a crane operator has his arm extended with his fingers closed and thumb pointing upward. This is the signal to __________.

 
 

18. "Block stowage" means __________.

 
 

19. In order to determine the health hazard data for carbolic acid, you would use that information contained in the Chemical Data Guide for which chemical?

 
 

20. Which spaces are required to be segregated from cargo tanks carrying grades A, B, C, or D cargoes?

 
 

21. What is NOT a grade E product?

 
 

22. According to the Chemical Data Guide, which extinguishing agent is NOT recommended for use on a retinol fire?

 
 

23. When commencing cargo operations on a container ship, one cell at a hatch is generally discharged completely (to the bottom of the ship) before removing any containers from the adjoining cells to _________.

 
 

24. A sling is rigged on a piece of pipe weighing 1000 lbs. The angle between the sling legs is 140° and the legs are of equal length. What stress is exerted on each sling leg when the pipe is lifted?

 
 

25. Containers of flammable solids should be conspicuously labeled by the shipper with a __________.

 
 

26. Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 58° and the wet bulb temperature is 53°, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold?

 
 

27. When a cargo boom or crane is rated at varying capacities, there will be a table at the controls which relates safe working load to __________

 
 

28. On a ship's crane, the load chart relates the allowable load to the combination of the boom length and __________.

 
 

29. Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 84° and the wet bulb temperature is 81°, what is the relative humidity in a cargo hold?

 
 

30. On a vessel proceeding from a very cold to a warm climate with a cargo of a nonhygroscopic nature in the holds, which is TRUE?

 
 

31. What is the advantage of the tandem working arrangement of pedestal cranes when operating cargo?

 
 
 
 

32. The main advantage and chief characteristic of a Steulchen boom is that it can be __________.

 
 

33. Hygroscopic cargoes should be ventilated when __________.

 
 

34. Odorous cargoes are those that __________

 
 

35. A vessel has an amidships superstructure. Which location would be most suitable for main deck stowage of vehicles?

 
 

36. Which statement(s) is/are TRUE concerning crane cargo operations?

 
 
 
 

37. When the dew point of the outside air is lower than or equal to the dew point of the air in the cargo hold, you should __________.

 
 

38. Which factor is MOST important in preventing sweat damage within a cargo hold?

 
 

39. Using the available references determine the dew point when the dry bulb temperature is 74°F (23°C) and the wet bulb temperature is 60°F (16°C).

 
 

40. Using the available references, if the dry bulb temperature is 55°F (13°C) and the wet bulb is 50°F (10°C), what is the relative humidity?

 
 

41. What is meant by "spotting the boom"?

 
 

42. What is meant by the term

 
 

43. The signal man assisting the crane operator uses one hand to give any motion signal and places the other hand motionless in front of the hand giving the motion signal. This is the signal to __________.

 
 

44. Cargo that gives off fumes that may contaminate other cargo is known as a(n) __________.

 
 

45. The stowage factor for a cargo is based upon __________.

 
 

46. How should you signal the crane operator to use the main hoist?

 
 

47. Dunnage may be used to protect a cargo from loss or damage by __________.

 
 

48. When fruit is carried as refrigerated cargo, the most frequent cause of its being infected at the discharge port is __________.

 
 

49. You are lifting a one-ton weight with a swinging boom. When comparing the stresses on the rig with the boom at 20° to the horizontal to the stresses when the boom is at 60° to the horizontal, which statement is TRUE?

 
 

50. You are lifting a 5-ton weight with a single whip rove on a swinging boom set at an angle of 60° to the horizontal. Use the formula for the size of a shackle with a safe working load and determine the minimum size shackle that should be used to secure the head block to the boom?

 
 

51. How should you signal the crane operator to dog everything?

 
 

52. There is a large shipment of case goods available to be loaded on your vessel. You are to load as many tons as possible in a hold which has 32,300 cubic feet left unfilled by cargo. Each case measures 2-feet high by 2-feet wide by 4-feet long and weighs 500 pounds. If you allow a broken stowage allowance of 10% of the 32,300 feet, what is the nearest whole number of tons which may be loaded?

 
 

53. What is required to be stenciled at the heel of a cargo boom?

 
 

54. For a given weight of cargo, the stress on the heel block of a cargo boom __________.

 
 

55. The greatest horizontal stress between the heads of the booms in the yard and stay rig occurs when the load is in such a position that the __________.

 
 

56. You are lifting a one-ton weight with a swinging boom. When comparing the stresses in the rig with the boom at 20° to the horizontal to the stresses when the boom is at 60° to the horizontal, which statement is TRUE?

 
 

57. In relation to cargo gear, what does "SWL" mean?

 
 

58. A spreader bar is used to __________.

 
 

59. The signal man assisting the crane operator has his forearm vertical, forefinger pointing up, and moves his hand in a small horizontal circle. This is the signal to __________.

 
 

60. The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended, his fingers closed, and his thumb pointing downward. This is the signal to __________.

 
 

61. It is the responsibility of the crane operator to, at all times, be aware of the location of the __________.

 
 
 
 

62. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding crane operations?

 
 

63. Which action(s) is/are included in crane operations?

 
 
 
 

64. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding twin pedestal cranes?

 
 
 
 

65. Which action(s) should the operator of a pedestal crane take if crane control is lost?

 
 
 
 

66. Which wire rope purchases may be used with a 30-ton pedestal crane?

 
 
 
 

67. What is the purpose of the equalizing beam aboard a crane vessel?

 
 

68. Pedestal cranes have limit switches to restrict the movement of which function?

 
 
 
 

69. The electrical components for each single crane are installed in its __________.

 
 
 
 

70. When the height of the metacenter is greater than the height of the center of gravity, the upright equilibrium position is stable and stability is __________.

 
 

71. The abbreviation GM is used to represent the __________.

 
 

72. The difference between the height of the metacenter and the height of the center of gravity is known as the __________.

 
 

73. A negative metacentric height __________.

 
 

74. Metacentric height is a measure of __________.

 
 

75. In small angle stability, the metacentric height __________.

 
 

76. The important initial stability parameter, GM, is the __________.

 
 

77. If the metacentric height is large, a vessel will __________.

 
 

78. A moment is obtained by multiplying a force by its __________.

 
 

79. The magnitude of a moment is the product of the force and __________.

 
 

80. At all angles of inclination, the true measure of a vessel's stability is the __________.

 
 

81. The angle of maximum righting arm corresponds approximately to the angle of __________.

 
 

82. The change in weight (measured in tons) which causes a draft change of one inch is __________.

 
 

83. The waterplane area is described as the intersection of the surface of the water in which a vessel floats and the __________.

 
 

84. Initial stability refers to stability __________.

 
 

85. The LCG of a vessel may be found by dividing displacement into the __________.

 
 

86. Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the longitudinal moments by the total weight yields the vessel's __________.

 
 

87. A vessel's LCG is determined by __________.

 
 

88. A ship's forward draft is 22'-04" and its after draft is 24'-00". The draft amidships is 23'-04". This indicates a concentration of weight __________.

 
 

89. The forward draft of your ship is 27'-11" and the after draft is 29'-03". The draft amidships is 28'-05". Your vessel is __________.

 
 

90. Tensile stress is a result of two forces acting in __________.

 
 

91. Weight concentration in which area will cause a vessel's bottom to be subjected to tension stresses?

 
 

92. Of the following, the most important consideration for a tank vessel is __________.

 
 

93. A vessel's mean draft is 29'-07". At this draft, the TPI is 152. The mean draft after loading 1360 tons will be __________.

 
 

94. The TPI curve, one of the hydrostatic curves in a vessel's plans, gives the number of tons __________.

 
 

95. A weight of 250 tons is loaded on your vessel 95 feet forward of the tipping center. The vessel's MT1 is 1000 ft-tons. What is the total change of trim?

 
 

96. A weight of 350 tons is loaded on your vessel 85 feet forward of the tipping center. The vessel's MT1 is 1150 foot-tons. What is the total change of trim?

 
 

97. Using the Guidance Manual for Loading the M.V. Grand Haven, determine the amount of ballast required in tank No. 5 (P & S) to maintain drafts of 17'-00" forward and 22'-06" aft for a vessel loaded with grain which has a test weight of 33 lbs.

 
 

98. Assuming that the recommended hatch loading sequence is followed, how many long tons of iron ore may be loaded through hatch No. 23 while using a single belt loader to arrive at a desired mean keel draft of 28'-00"? (Use the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN.)

 
 

99. Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 19'-08", AFT 20'-04". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 840 long tons are loaded in No. 1 hatch.

 
 

100. Your vessel's existing draft is FWD 14'-00", AFT 16'-00". Using the Guidance Manual for Loading M.V. GRAND HAVEN, determine the new draft if 350 long tons are discharged from No. 13 hatch.

 
 


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