Assessment Test

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1. What leadership style tends to extrinsically motivate employees on a contingent reward system where the focus is on outcomes?


2. Some managers think that the average person has a dislike for work, avoids responsibility, and cannot be trusted. What type of leadership style is such a manager likely to adopt?


3. Some managers think the average person likes work, willingly assumes responsibility, and is trustworthy. What type of leadership style is such a manager likely to adopt?


4. Leadership style sometimes must change with the situation faced by the manager. Which of the following situations would be best suited for adopting a structured, autocratic leadership style?


5. Leadership style sometimes must change with the readiness level of the employees. Which of the following employee readiness level scenarios would be best suited for adopting a structuring and telling leadership style?


6. Leadership style sometimes must change with the readiness level of the employees. Which of the following employee readiness level scenarios would be best suited for adopting a delegating leadership style?


7. which of the following shipboard groups would be an example of an informal group?


8. The greatest difference between absorbent and adsorbent filters is that absorbent filters __________.


9. Which of the following statements best describes the filtering ability of a fine mesh metal lube oil strainer?


10. Which of the following lube oil filters would be considered acceptable for use with today's high detergent additive type oils?


11. Which of the filter/strainer units listed permits you to clean the element while leaving the system on the line?


12. Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a Voith- Schneider drive?


13. When an electricity generating plant features shaft-driven generators, what type of propulsor is generally used for main propulsion?


14. What type of propeller consists of a flat disc set flush with the under surface of the vessel's hull with a number of vertical, rudder-like blades projecting from it?


15. Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for electric propulsion where the drive motors are outside the ship's hull?


16. Which of the following propulsor types does not require the use of a separate rudder for steerage?


17. Concerning steerable internal duct thrusters, what statement is true?


18. What statement represents the fundamental difference between an azimuthing thruster and a podded propulsor?


19. With respect to a


20. What type of propulsor is typically used in electric motor driven, transverse, tunnel bow thrusters to limit the starting current of the single speed drive motor?


21. Which set of operating conditions would be most problematic in terms of the deterioration of the insulation resistance of the drive motor of an electric motor driven transverse tunnel bow thruster?


22. Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive featuring a single reduction?


23. For a parallel axis single reduction gear, what statement is true?


24. Which of the following couplings or clutches would be able to prevent the transmission of torsional vibrations from an engine to a reduction gear?


25. Concerning main propulsion reduction gears, what statement is true?


26. Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive featuring a double reduction?


27. If a main propulsion shafting arrangement is such that a strut and strut bearing is required, what is the name of the section of shafting that passes through the hull penetration to the closest water-tight bulkhead?


28. What statement is true concerning the arrangement of line shaft bearing housings?


29. What statement is true concerning the purpose of an independent main thrust bearing where used?


30. Concerning the proper lubrication of a ring-oiled line shaft bearing, what statement is true?


31. What type of bearing is most generally used as an independent main thrust block on merchant ships?


32. A pumping system utilizing a centrifugal pump is designed for a specific discharge head in feet. What happens to the pump's discharge pressure when the Specific Gravity (SG) of the fluid pumped changes?


33. One is informed by the owner that two of the vessel's electrically driven centrifugal cooling water pumps will be replaced with two of higher capacity pumps. No modification of existing piping will be involved. What should be your concerns from an operational perspective?


34. The assistant engineer reports an installed centrifugal pump has a history of running higher than normal amperage since new construction. Capacity and discharge head for the pump are more than adequate. All other system parameters are normal. The best way to reduce the pump load is to do which of the following?


35. On disassembling a centrifugal pump for overhaul, the third engineer reports holes drilled axially in the back side of a single suction closed impeller. The reason for the these holes is which of the following?


36. When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the following precautions should be observed?


37. When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, after the packing is firmly seated, the packing gland nuts should be __________.


38. Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or pullers be avoided on bronze or brass shafts, rods, plungers, or sleeves?


39. A pump shaft that is bent or distorted should normally be __________.


40. When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a pump, it is important to ______.


41. Your centrifugal ballast pump is producing a pressure less than the designed discharge pressure. What could be the cause?


42. (The shipyard has just reassembled an overhauled centrifugal pump. On testing, water is coming from the mechanical seal area. Which of the following are likely reasons for the leakage?


43. While pumping ballast the Chief Mate reports there is a decrease in vacuum on the pump suction when drawing from a partially full saddle tank. Which of the following could be a possible cause?


44. While making a round in the lower engine room you discover a leak in the suction pipe to the main salt water pump. How would proceed to correct this problem?


45. When reviewing log books, the main salt water cooling pump discharge pressure has decreased in the three years since overhaul. Which of the following would most likely be the cause of the problem.


46. When opening a ballast pump for inspection, the wear ring clearance is found to be approaching maximum. Which of the following would be expected?


47. A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves __________.


48. Coast Guard regulations concerning marine sanitation devices may be found in __________.


49. Marine sanitation devices installed on vessels must be certified by the __________.


50. The process of grinding, shredding, or reducing the size of sewage particles is known as __________.


51. Which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?


52. What type of HVAC system is ideally designed to serve a large public space?


53. What type of HVAC system is characterized by poor air distribution and ventilation and low system heat loads?


54. What type of HVAC system is characterized by a having a split supply air stream, with one for cold air and the other for hot air?


55. What type of HVAC system is characterized by having control dampers in locations other than the outside air supply, outside air exhaust, and recirculation damper applications?


56. What type of pump is invariably used as a circulator in a hydronic heating system?


57. What statement is true concerning a one-pipe hydronic heating system?


58. It is absolutely essential that hydronic heating system hot water piping be kept free of air. Assuming that a system is initially properly filled with water, what is the primary source of air contamination?


59. What advantage does a 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling heating system have over a 2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system?


60. Concerning cargo-hold dehumidification, what statement is true?


61. What statement is true concerning a liquid desiccant cargo-hold dehumidification system?


62. With regard to the cooling and heating coils and humidification and regeneration chambers of a liquid cargo-hold dehumidification system, what statement is true?


63. To prevent damage to dry cargoes, the cargo hold ventilation and dehumidification systems play a key role. In terms of the maintained dew point, what statement is true?


64. To determine the average cargo hold dew point temperature, at what location would the dew point be measured?


65. What common feature is found on both liquid-desiccant and solid-desiccant cargo- hold dehumidification systems?


66. What temperature associated with the psychrometric properties of air is measured by an ordinary thermometer?


67. Where would you find a list of the firefighting equipment required on your vessel?


68. The duties of a chief engineer upon taking charge of the department include __________.


69. A Coast Guard engineer's license can be suspended or revoked for __________.


70. Oil sprays on to a hot piece of machinery, catches fire and causes $35,000 damage to your vessel. By law this must be reported to the _________


71. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), it is the duty of the Chief Engineer to acquire and seal a sample of fuel oil received whenever fuel oil bunkers are taken. This sample must be preserved until __________.


72. Who is responsible for ensuring that someone is assigned to close the watertight doors in an emergency?


73. An international and coastwise load line assignment and certificate has been issued to a vessel by the American Bureau of Shipping, under the authority of Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), for a period of __________.


74. The minimum number of crew members permitted by law to operate your vessel can be determined by checking the __________.


75. The Certificate of Inspection for your vessel was issued in January. In March of the same year you need to replace a cooling water pump for the refrigeration system. What action would be appropriate?


76. The minimum firefighting equipment to be maintained onboard a tank vessel, can be determined from the __________.


77. The assessment of a trainee's practical demonstration of skills should be conducted __________.


78. A water line ruptures under pressure and floods the engine room causing $(USA)30,000 damage to the machinery. By law, this must be reported to the __________.


79. A trainee is on board your vessel and will need to be assessed in the demonstration of practical skills. Ideally you should assess their skill __________.


80. One important objective of a practical skill demonstration for mariner certification is to __________.


81. In order to assess each trainee in the performance of a practical demonstration, the assessor should __________.


82. When a ships officer signs off a trainee's successful completion of one or more practical demonstrations, they are attesting to the trainee's____________.


83. A licensed officer designated to certify a trainee's performance of a practical demonstration should sign off when _______.


84. When tuning a Proportional, Integral, Derivative (PID) controller/loop, one should know/understand the influence of each action component on the loop. Which description of a component is correct


85. As the engineer, it is necessary to tune a proportional-integral-derivative (PID) control loop. If the PID incorporates all three functions, which function(s) is/are dominant in the controllers performance?


86. A 'Proportional Only' controlled automatic process loop is oscillating continually, above and below the set point. To stabilize this controller and loop using the 'gain' adjustment, what controller/loop response would you expect upon process changes vs. set point?


87. Engineering departments may experience a barrier to free and open communication vertically upward from subordinates to managers. What is the primary reason for this barrier to communication?


88. You are enthusiastically telling one of your 3rd Assistant Engineers,


89. Attitudes, biases, and prejudices towards certain groups (nationalities, races, religions, and sexes) can pose formidable challenges to communication. This is because an individual is judged by group association rather than by getting to know the individual and recognizing individual differences. What is the tendency called?


90. What form of communication provides the greatest information richness, which is the amount of verbal and non-verbal information that a communication channel carries?


91. In order to establish a good climate for communication it is important to establish mutual trust between the employee and the manager. Which of the following facilitates the trust of employees in managers?


92. In order to establish a good climate for communication it is important to minimize status barriers. Which of the following techniques would be the best way to minimize status barriers on a one-on-one, face-to-face conversation of a sensitive nature with an employee?


93. An important communication tool for managers is known as active listening. It helps better insure that managers understand employees and that feedback is encouraged. What is active listening?


94. It has long been established that employee performance is linked to motivation. Which of the following levels of motivation would be considered to be at the highest level?


95. When it comes to motivating employees, it is important to distinguish between intrinsic and extrinsic motivation. What statement best represents the difference?


96. A system of rewards and punishments that follow a person's behavior as a way to shape that individual's future behavior is consistent with what motivational theory?


97. Which of the following actions would motivate employees by making their job intrinsically more rewarding?


98. The design of a job has a great impact on whether or not the job itself is motivating. One of the characteristics of a job design is skill variety, which is the extent to which a job requires a worker to use a broad range of skills and talents to perform the job successfully. What is true about skill variety?


99. The design of a job has a great impact on whether or not the job itself is motivating. One of the characteristics of a job design is task significance, which is the extent to which the job substantially impacts the work or lives of others. What is true about task significance?


100. The design of a job has a great impact on whether or not the job itself is motivating. One of the characteristics of a job design is autonomy, which is the extent to which the job entails substantial freedom and decision making in carrying it out. What is true about autonomy?


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