Assessment Test


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1. In rockwell test it use a diamond cone and press against the surface to test. What is the weight use for hard material?

 
 
 
 

2. In rockwell test it use a hard steel ball and press against the surface to test. What is the weight use for soft material?

 
 
 
 

3. One of the impact tests for the material is charpy, what is the angle of the hammer use?

 
 
 
 

4. One of the impact tests for the material is charpy, what is the length of the material to be tested?

 
 
 
 

5. What type of plastic processing that the most common in the forming of parts to be made from thermosetting plastics?

 
 
 
 

6. What type of compression molding that the excess of charge is squeeze out?

 
 
 
 

7. What type of compression molding that the mold are quit exact to the dimension provided the charge is just sufficient to fill the mold under proper pressure?

 
 
 
 

8. What type of compression molding that the charge take the full force of the ram?

 
 
 
 

9. What type of compression molding that use when parts being molded require that the large space to be provided of the charge?

 
 
 
 

10. What type of case hardening that the steel is to a carbon rich environment and elevated temperature for a certain amount of time and then quenched so that the carbon is lock in the structure?

 
 
 
 

11. What type of case hardening that the process in which the surface of the steel is heated to a high temperature?

 
 
 
 

12. What type of case hardening that heat the steel in an atmosphere of ammonia gas and dissociated ammonia?

 
 
 
 

13. What type of case hardening that the steel is heated in a bath of sodium cyanide and then quenched and rinse in water or oil?

 
 
 
 

14. Which of the following does not alter the stability of a ship when having loose water?

 
 
 
 

15. What does longitudinal stability resist?

 
 
 
 

16. What effect does pocketing have on stability?

 
 
 
 

17. Which of the following terms best defines force multiplied by the distance from an axis about which you want to find its effect?

 
 
 
 

18. What will occur if the weight of the ship is less than the weight of equal volume of water?

 
 
 
 

19. What do you call a side girder in the fore and aft line sited either side of the keel?

 
 
 
 

20. What do you call the after plate of the keel which may dish to fit the stern frame section?

 
 
 
 

21. What do you call the plate having double curvature immediately below the transom floor and running into the fore side of the stern post?

 
 
 
 

22. What do you call the plate found at the extremities of the vessel in the shell plate or deck plating?

 
 
 
 

23. What do you call the plate parallel to the stern tube at the level of the propeller?

 
 
 
 

24. What do you call the triangular plate often used for joining angle bar to the plate?

 
 
 
 

25. What do you call the shell plating with an in or out design of its edges which would be required for the fitting of raised and sunken strake?

 
 
 
 

26. What is parallel rise in longitudinal stability and trim?

 
 
 
 

27. What is parallel sinkage in longitudinal stability and trim?

 
 
 
 

28. What do you mean by LCF in the longitudinal stability and trim?

 
 
 
 

29. What character is used to denote that the sea-going vessel is constructed out of steel and was classed with Lloyd’s Register of Shipping?

 
 
 
 

30. Symbol used by the Lloyd’s Register of Shipping (LR) to denote that the vessel was constructed under the supervision of LR surveyors in accordance with its rules and regulations.?

 
 
 
 

31. Steel or alloy cover plate fitted internally to portholes for protection against water ingress incase of glass failure?

 
 
 
 

32. What is the Maritime Labor Code 2006 which is generally termed as Definition and Scope of Application?

 
 
 
 

33. What is the Maritime Labor Code 2006 which is generally termed as Fundamental Rights and Principle?

 
 
 
 

34. What is the Maritime Labor Code which is generally termed as Consultation with Shipowners’ and Seafarers’ Organization?

 
 
 
 

35. What is the Maritime Labor Code which is generally referred to as Special Tripartite Committee?

 
 
 
 

36. What is the Maritime Labor Code which is generally referred to as Depositary Functions?

 
 
 
 

37. The majority of the longitudinal structure consists of basic longitudinally stiffened panel components which are characterized by what dimensionless design parameter?

 
 
 
 

38. The majority of the longitudinal structure consists of basic longitudinally stiffened panel components which are characterized by what dimensionless design parameter?

 
 
 
 

39. The majority of the longitudinal structure consists of basic longitudinally stiffened panel components which are characterized by what dimensionless design parameter?

 
 
 
 

40. As per GL standard, minimum material grade for ships with length exceeding 150m and single strength deck should be __________.

 
 
 
 

41. As per GL standard, minimum material grade for ships with length exceeding 250m, shear strake at strength deck should be __________.

 
 
 
 

42. As per GL standard, minimum material grade for single side-skin bulk carriers subjected to SOLAS regulation XII/6.5 should be _________.

 
 
 
 

43. The Amendments to SOLAS regulations II-1/3-2 concerning the mandatory Performance Standard for Protective Coating (PSPC) were approved by the IMO Maritime Safety Committee (MSC) and applies to ships. I.For which the building contract is placed on or after 1 July 2008. II.for which the keels are laid on or after 1 January 2009 III.which the delivery is on or after 1 July 2012

 
 
 
 

44. The Amendments to SOLAS regulations II-1/3-2 concerning the mandatory Performance Standard for Protective Coating (PSPC) were approved by the IMO Maritime Safety Committee (MSC) and applies to ships _____________.

 
 
 
 

45. What is the equivalent of absolute zero on the Fahrenheit scale at atmospheric condition?

 
 
 
 

46. At atmospheric condition, how many degrees Celsius on the Celsius scale is equals to absolute zero?

 
 
 
 

47. The absolute temperature in Celsius scale is expressed in ______.

 
 
 
 

48. What is the unit of absolute temperature on the Fahrenheit scale?

 
 
 
 

49. What is the idealized thermodynamic cycle in a thermal power plant used to convert heat into mechanical work?

 
 
 
 

50. Gabriel Fahrenheit of Amsterdam, Holland was introduced the Fahrenheit scale in the year ____.

 
 
 
 

51. When Andre Celsius was introduced the centigrade scale?

 
 
 
 

52. What is the temperature used by the National Bureau of Standard for the liquid-vapour equilibrium of Hydrogen?

 
 
 
 

53. The liquid-vapour equilibrium of Nitrogen used by the National Bureau of Standards is ____.

 
 
 
 

54. At what temperature which the liquid-vapor equilibrium of Oxygen occurs?

 
 
 
 

55. Silver has long been valued as a precious metal, what is the temperature which solid – liquid equilibrium occurs?

 
 
 
 

56. Gold is the most ductile and malleable metal and known as a noble metal which has a solid – liquid equilibrium of how many degrees Celsius?

 
 
 
 

57. The latent heat of vaporization in Joules/kg is equal to .

 
 
 
 

58. A heat engine is supplied heat at a rate of 30,000 J/s gives an output of 9 kW. The thermal efficiency of the engine is .

 
 
 
 

59. All of the following are considered absorbent, what is commonly used as liquid absorbent?

 
 
 
 

60. In order to reduce the temperature of air, which mechanism design is used to lower the temperature when passing through it?

 
 
 
 

61. Wind velocity is measured with a device known as ______.

 
 
 
 

62. Analysis of fuel which determines the percentage of moisture, volatile matter, fixed carbon and ash is called ________.

 
 
 
 

63. The Cetane number is the ratio by volume of methane in a mixture containing cetane and _________.

 
 
 
 

64. Which of the following describes good combustion of fuel?

 
 
 
 

65. In proximate analysis, the products of combustion consist of moisture content, fixed carbon, ash and ______.

 
 
 
 

66. The CO2 (carbon dioxide) percentage in the flue gas of an efficiently fired boiler should be approximately ______.

 
 
 
 

67. If the viscosity of a certain liquid decreases with agitation at constant pressure, the liquid said to be ________.

 
 
 
 

68. What is the effect of increasing load based on a steam generator having good combustion control?

 
 
 
 

69. The carbon dioxide percentage in the flue gases for perfect combustion of fuel oil compared to coal and based on the same excess air percentage of each is _________.

 
 
 
 

70. The dew point temperature of the products of combustion is the saturation temperature that corresponds to the partial pressure of the _______.

 
 
 
 

71. Dry analysis is a fractional analysis of the products of combustion which does not include _______.

 
 
 
 

72. In vapour compression cycle, condensation occurs at ________.

 
 
 
 

73. In vapour compressor cycle, expansion occurs at ________.

 
 
 
 

74. Surface effectiveness of coil depends on _______.

 
 
 
 

75. Which type of metering device does not require a critical refrigerant charge?

 
 
 
 

76. The Coefficient of Performance (COP) of a refrigeration process would be _____.

 
 
 
 

77. An increase in the Coefficient of performance of a refrigeration process is accomplished by _______.

 
 
 
 

78. What is the lowest temperature to which water could possibly be cooled in cooling water?

 
 
 
 

79. The performance of reciprocating compressor can be expressed by _____.

 
 
 
 

80. Which of the following types of air dryers works by absorbing moisture on a solid desiccant or drying material such as activated alumina, silicon gel, or molecular sieve?

 
 
 
 

81. In a refrigeration system, the heat absorbed in the evaporator per kg mass of refrigerant passing through ______.

 
 
 
 

82. Which of the following liquid whose temperature is lower than the saturation temperature corresponding to the existing pressure?

 
 
 
 

83. Which of the following refining process separates petroleum and lubricating oil in the fractioning tower?

 
 
 
 

84. Which of the following refining process reduce the required temperature of distillation for heavier fraction to avoid oil cracking?

 
 
 
 

85. Which of the following refining process which employed silica or alumina?

 
 
 
 

86. Which of the following refining process which uses heat and pressure to break or split heavy molecule into lighter compound leaving heavy residue?

 
 
 
 

87. What is the flash point of number one diesel oil according to American Society of Testing Materials?

 
 
 
 

88. What is the flash point of number two diesel oil according to American Society of Testing Materials?

 
 
 
 

89. What is the standard color of the gasoline container?

 
 
 
 

90. What is the standard color of the kerosene container?

 
 
 
 

91. What is the standard color of the diesel container?

 
 
 
 

92. What are cycloalkanes in the classification of hydrocarbons?

 
 
 
 

93. What type of metal process that uses centrifugal force to form cylindrical parts?

 
 
 
 

94. What type of casting process that is characterized by forcing molten metal under high pressure into a mold cavity?

 
 
 
 

95. What type of forging process where a round or flat bar stock is reduced in thickness and increase in length?

 
 
 
 

96. What type of forging process which the dimension of an item are altered using a die or dies, into which the item is forced?

 
 
 
 

97. What type of forging process an open die forging used to convert cast ingot into forged billet?

 
 
 
 

98. What type of forging process which work metal is placed in the die resembling a mold that is attached to the anvil?

 
 
 
 

99. In brinell test it use a hardened steel ball with a 10mm diameter and press against the surface to test. What is the weight use for hard material?

 
 
 
 

100. In brinell test it use a hardened steel ball with a 10mm diameter and press against the surface to test. What is the weight use for soft material?

 
 
 
 


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