Assessment Test

NEXT

1. For planning purposes graphical charts can be a useful tool. What type of chart is good for a visual progress report and identifies work stages or activities on the vertical axis and the scheduled completion dates on the horizontal axis?

 
 
 
 

2. For planning purposes graphical charts can be a useful tool. What type of chart is good for showing the dependency of one activity upon another and shows the relationship among a network of activities?

 
 
 
 

3. As a first assistant or chief engineer, what is the source of your authority?

 
 
 
 

4. What is meant by the term empowering employees?

 
 
 
 

5. What would be a legitimate reason why some managers don't delegate authority to subordinates?

 
 
 
 

6. What type of managerial controls measure actions or activities that have already occurred and implement corrective action if needed?

 
 
 
 

7. In order to set up a managerial control system, the first step is to establish performance standards. What example of a performance standard is most difficult to measure and the biggest challenge to the manager?

 
 
 
 

8. What type of managerial control system features strategic control points which measure performance while the activity is taking place?

 
 
 
 

9. In setting up a managerial control system, the standard must be established, and a means of measuring performance against that standard must be established. What statement is true concerning the comparison between performance and the standard?

 
 
 
 

10. To maximize the profitability of a shipping company, in goal-setting ships are often asked to increase productivity. Which of the following scenarios represents an actual decrease in productivity?

 
 
 
 

11. Which of the following would represent an attempt to reduce the frequency of required overhauls for machinery?

 
 
 
 

12. Which of the following diagrams or charts is particularly useful for understanding and identifying the causes of problems?

 
 
 
 

13. As an engineering department manager, promoting safety is a fundamental consideration. In terms of the causes of accidents, which cause is responsible for most work-related accidents?

 
 
 
 

14. As an engineering department manager, what should you do if an accident occurs, injuring one of your employees?

 
 
 
 

15. A performance appraisal (employee evaluation) is the process used to determine what extent an employee is performing a job in the way that is was intended to be done. Properly done and in the interest of employee development, what should be the focus of the appraisal?

 
 
 
 

16. Even though conducting an employee appraisal interview may be one of the least liked aspects of the job of a manager, why are they important?

 
 
 
 

17. Progressive discipline is discipline that uses a graduated scale of penalties which become progressively more severe each time a particular violation is repeated. What disciplinary action is generally associated with a first offense?

 
 
 
 

18. In order for discipline to be administered fairly, discipline must carry a clear advance warning, be immediate, be consistent, and be impersonally administered. What is meant by consistency?

 
 
 
 

19. The "hot-stove" rule is sometimes used to illustrate the principles of fair, effective discipline. Which of the following principles illustrates the principle of discipline carrying a clear warning?

 
 
 
 

20. As an engineering department manager in dealing with a grievance presented by a unlicensed engine department crew and union member, what documentation spells out the grievance procedure

 
 
 
 

21. What is usually the last step in trying to resolve a grievance filed by a crew member as established by the collective bargaining agreement between the company and the crew member's union

 
 
 
 

22. What is usually the first step in trying to resolve a beef or a dispute brought up by a crew member?

 
 
 
 

23. What federal agency enforces the prohibition of employment discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, or national origin as it applies to shipboard employment onboard US flag vessels?

 
 
 
 

24. One of the means of alternative dispute resolution regarding a collective bargaining agreement dispute is arbitration. What is meant by arbitration?

 
 
 
 

25. One of the means of alternative dispute resolution regarding a collective bargaining agreement dispute is mediation. What is meant by mediation?

 
 
 
 

26. One of the means of alternative dispute resolution regarding a collective bargaining agreement is arbitration. What is the role of the arbitrator?

 
 
 
 

27. Suppose as an engineering department manager a grievance concerning the interpretation of the collective bargaining agreement (the contract) is resolved by the arbitration process. If you disagree with the decision rendered by the arbitrator, what should be your response?

 
 
 
 

28. Which of the following third parties utilized in alternative dispute resolution proceedings has the authority to make a binding decision?

 
 
 
 

29. As a chief engineer you are reviewing the engine room log book. You must insure that all entries are made properly. What should be your criteria for how a watch officer makes a correction to an incorrect log entry?

 
 
 
 

30. You are the Chief Engineer onboard a general cargo vessel in excess of 1600 gross tons. To remain in compliance with the 33 CFR Oil Record Book requirements for non-tank vessel machinery space operations, which of the following operations requires an entry to be made in the Oil Record Book

 
 
 
 

31. According to the 33 CFR regulations pertaining to the Oil Record Book, what person or entity has ownership of the Oil Record Book?

 
 
 
 

32. According to the 33 CFR regulations pertaining to the Oil Record Book, how long must the Oil Record Book be maintained on board those vessels for which the regulations apply?

 
 
 
 

33. According to the 33 CFR regulations pertaining to signatures required in the Oil Record Book, what statement is true?

 
 
 
 

34. According to 33CFR, regulations pertaining to entries made in the Oil Record Book, how often must the Oil Record Book be updated with entries?

 
 
 
 

35. You are installing a new refrigeration system aboard your vessel. The system comes with a 240 psi rupture disk, a safety valve set at 240 psi and a pressure gauge connection and gauge. According to the federal code of regulations, what is the preferred setup for installing the equipment on the condenser?

 
 
 
 

36. Over current protection for steering-gear systems circuits that power alternating- current motors must have an instantaneous trip set at what rating?

 
 
 
 

37. You are conducting an operational test of your main steering gear system. The main steering gear must be capable of moving the rudder from 35 degrees on either side to 35 degrees on the other with the vessel at its deepest loadline draft and running at maximum ahead service speed, and from 35 degrees on either side to 30 degrees on the other in what minimum time frame?

 
 
 
 

38. Machinery spaces must be designed to minimize the exposure of personnel to noise in accordance with U.S. regulations. Manned machinery space noise must not exceed which noise level?

 
 
 
 

39. Machinery spaces must be designed to minimize the exposure of personnel to noise in accordance with U.S. regulations. Machinery control room noise must not exceed which noise level?

 
 
 
 

40. You are supervising a new electrician concerning an onboard test of an electrical component using a test rig with flexible cable. The electrician is unsure of the cable conductor color coding. Which of the color coded insulated conductors can only serve as an equipment safety ground and shall not be used as a current carrying conductor?

 
 
 
 

41. The electric winch drive motor on one of your ship's lifeboat davits needs to be replaced. What minimum short-time rating should the replacement motor have in hours?

 
 
 
 

42. The electric drive motor on one of your ship's electro-mechanically driven deck winches needs to be replaced. What minimum short-time rating should the replacement motor have in hours?

 
 
 
 

43. One of your ship's indirect-drive steering gear drive motors needs to be replaced. What minimum short-time rating should the replacement motor have in hours?

 
 
 
 

44. According to the electrical engineering regulations of the CFR, which of the following electrical repairs is permitted?

 
 
 
 

45. The firefighting equipment on your general cargo vessel was last inspected by a shore side contractor 12 months ago. To remain in compliance with the Federal Code of Regulations (46 CFR), as Chief Engineer, what should your appropriate action be?

 
 
 
 

46. As Chief Engineer of a General Cargo Vessel of more than 1600 gross tons on an international voyage, you direct the Third Engineer to perform the annual maintenance on the lifeboat engine. In accordance with 46 CFR, what would you instruct the Third Engineer do when the job has been completed?

 
 
 
 

47. According to the Code of Federal Regulations (46 CFR) for General Cargo Vessels, what determines the maximum allowable pressure that can be carried in a steam boiler?

 
 
 
 

48. According to the Code of Federal Regulations (46 CFR) for Passenger Vessels, for how long do the drawn and sealed half-pint fuel samples need to be maintained and preserved on board?

 
 
 
 

49. According to the Code of Federal Regulations (46 CFR) for Tank Vessels, what is the minimum allowable flashpoint for a fuel to be burned in a steam boiler?

 
 
 
 

50. In what part of 33CFR can be found the recordkeeping requirements for specific machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker that must be entered into an Oil Record Book?

 
 
 
 

51. In accordance with federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, for U.S non- oceangoing ships, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops?

 
 
 
 

52. In accordance with the federal regulation in 33CFR Subchapter O, which discharge of oil or oily mixture to sea is permissible?

 
 
 
 

53. Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, if a vessel equipped with a Type II Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the discharge of treated or untreated sewage is prohibited, which of the following methods of securing the device to prevent the discharge of sewage is ACCEPTABLE if it is impractical to close the seacock and prevent its opening?

 
 
 
 

54. During the "storming" phase of group development, conflicts generally arise over goals, task behaviors, and leadership roles. If these conflicts are not successfully resolved, what may result?

 
 
 
 

55. During the "forming" stage of group development, members are trying to determine the task of the group and their role expectations of one another. As a manager, what should be done to help facilitate the "forming" process?

 
 
 
 

56. As a manager considering which approach to use at a meeting, what type of meeting is most likely to be one that is most appropriate to use a leader-controlled approach as opposed to a group-centered approach?

 
 
 
 

57. What type of meeting is most likely to be one that is most appropriate to use group consensus as a process

 
 
 
 

58. In conducting a group-centered meeting, it is important to encourage participation and two-way communication. In addition to being an alert listener, what specific technique is particularly helpful in getting non-contributors to participate?

 
 
 
 

59. If a problem confronts an entire work group, what is the best technique for communication of the issues and concerns?

 
 
 
 

60. What statement is true concerning leader-controlled and group-centered meetings?

 
 
 
 

61. As managers conducting a meeting, what action should you take when an attendee exhibits disruptive or inappropriate behavior?

 
 
 
 

62. Which of the following conflict resolution techniques represents a strategy where everyone wins?

 
 
 
 

63. As a manager, which of the following conflict management styles is considered the most appropriate for resolving conflict and is considered both an assertive and a cooperative approach?

 
 
 
 

64. As a manager, one of the practices of positive confrontation reduction skills essential to conflict resolution involves a type of listening. What type of listening would be most effective in resolving a conflict?

 
 
 
 

65. What statement is true concerning stress and personal psychological makeup of managers and supervisors?

 
 
 
 

66. An important component of pre-planning for fire emergencies is the fire control plan. Which statement is true concerning the fire control plan for a vessel?

 
 
 
 

67. An important component of pre-planning for fire emergencies is the fire control plan. What types of drawings are generally furnished in the fire control plan?

 
 
 
 

68. An important component of pre-planning for fire emergencies is the general arrangement drawing. What type of drawing is the general arrangement drawing?

 
 
 
 

69. Pre-fire survey forms are particularly useful for collecting information pertaining to fire emergency response efforts. On what basis is this information collected?

 
 
 
 

70. Of all the individual components of a pre-fire planning package, which component contains information pertaining to general instructions, fire and emergency instructions and signals, abandon ship instructions and signals, and assigns individual emergency response duties and responsibilities for each crew member by position?

 
 
 
 

71. Of all the individual components of a pre-fire planning package, which component contains information about emergency duty station locations and responsibilities for each crew member by position AND name?

 
 
 
 

72. Of the individual components of a pre-fire planning package, which component when used with stability charts would be particularly useful in decision-making as it applies to the effect of water accumulated during firefighting efforts and the free surface effect?

 
 
 
 

73. When preparing/writing shipyard items for your vessel's upcoming dry docking period, what would you consider as an item regarding CuNi salt water cooling systems/piping?

 
 
 
 

74. Dry-docking for a vessel not enrolled in an underwater survey program in lieu of dry- docking is due at what interval?

 
 
 
 

75. During the Special Survey the propeller is removed and shaft pulled into the vessel. Which of the following tests must be performed on the propeller shaft prior to refitting?

 
 
 
 

76. In accordance with 46 CFR 61, for a passenger vessel, what is the interval in years between when hydrostatic tests must be performed on an oil-fired water-tube auxiliary boiler as witnessed by a marine inspector?

 
 
 
 

77. A periodic hydrostatic test is being performed on an oil-fired auxiliary water-tube boiler with a maximum allowable working pressure of 150 psig. In accordance with 46 CFR 61, what is the required hydrostatic test pressure for this procedure?

 
 
 
 

78. If a boiler is being prepared for a hydrostatic test as part of a periodic inspection, in accordance with 46 CFR 61, which statement is true?

 
 
 
 

79. In accordance with 46 CFR 61, what is the interval in years between when boiler drum safety valves must be tested on a fire-tube boiler operating at less than 150 psig as witnessed by a marine inspector?

 
 
 
 

80. Assuming the inspection interval for a boiler as specified by 46 CFR 61 is 2.5 years, which statement is true?

 
 
 
 

81. If a new 3rd Assistant Engineer reports on board, ideally, who should conduct the familiarization training specific and relevant to the engineer's routine maintenance and watchkeeping duties?

 
 
 
 

82. What statement is true concerning a well-planned turnover procedure from one crew to another?

 
 
 
 

83. If there is any doubt that a newly employed engine department crew member is sufficiently familiar with the engine room equipment, operating and maintenance procedures needed for the proper performance of his or her duties, what should be done?

 
 
 
 

84. As you manage the engine room familiarization training program for new engine department employees, what should you explain to these new employees?

 
 
 
 

85. Before training is to be planned for, it is necessary to conduct a training needs analysis. What would be the best source of information to analyze before providing fire emergency skills training?

 
 
 
 

86. Before training is to be planned for, it is necessary to conduct a training needs analysis. What would be the best source of information to analyze before providing general safety training?

 
 
 
 

87. Consider the following training objective for a training session designed for training your crew how to pump bilges:

 
 
 
 

88. Consider the following training objective for a training session designed for training your crew how to pump bilges:

 
 
 
 

89. Consider the following training objective for a training session designed for training your crew how to pump bilges:

 
 
 
 

90. You are conducting a training session on how to parallel alternators manually. What delivery technique would be most effective to ensure transfer of learning with the desired outcome that the officers under training actually be able to successfully parallel manually in the future?

 
 
 
 

91. You are in the planning stages of providing apparently needed general safety training. Besides a careful review of accident and incident investigations, what other strategy would provide an excellent resource for training ideas?

 
 
 
 

92. In consultation with the other ship's management level officers, you are planning a required fire emergency drill. In addition to selecting a scenario as functionally realistic as possible (such as a high fire risk area) what follow-up activity would best maximize the training effectiveness for future applicability to an actual fire emergency?

 
 
 
 

93. When conducting a training session, what technique is particularly effective in engaging the participants, keeping them alert, and to obtain feedback?

 
 
 
 

94. Decisions must be made based upon the appropriate response to a given situation. Which of the following situations requiring a decision require a different response each time and are considered unprogrammed decisions?

 
 
 
 

95. Decisions must be made based upon the appropriate response to a given situation, generally a problem of some sort. Before effective decision-making can take place, what must first be done?

 
 
 
 

96. Once a problem has been defined and the root cause (or causes) identified, what is the next step in the decision-making process?

 
 
 
 

97. Once a problem has been defined and the root cause (or causes) identified, the next step in the decision-making process is developing alternative solutions to the problem. What statement best reflects how many alternatives should be considered?

 
 
 
 

98. What is the critical first step that must be carried out before executing a plan?

 
 
 
 

99. Before a plan can be effectively executed, the objective of the plan must be defined. What statement concerning the definition of a plan objective best represents the proper writing of an objective as an engineering department management level officer?

 
 
 
 

100. Which of the following document types would offer the greatest flexibility in carrying out its intent?

 
 
 
 


Total Rating:


click here to go to review now