Assessment Test

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1. On a newly constructed oceangoing vessel of 10,000 gross tons, equipped with an approved 100 ppm oily water separator, and bilge monitor, the bilge monitor continuous record must be __________.

 
 
 
 

2. Bilges may be pumped __________.

 
 
 
 

3. On U.S. inspected ships, oily water separating equipment, bilge alarms, and bilge monitors must be approved under

 
 
 
 

4. Which of the following operations aboard a tanker must be recorded in the Oil Record Book on a tank-to-tank basis according to Coast Guard Regulations?

 
 
 
 

5. A tank vessel with an oil cargo capacity of 5000 barrels is required by regulations to have a fixed container, or enclosed deck area under or around each oil loading manifold and each oil transfer connection point. The capacity of these containment areas is based upon __________.

 
 
 
 

6. In accordance with Coast Guard Regulations (33 CFR), each pressure gage used in fuel transfer operations must be calibrated to indicate pressure within what percent of the actual pressure?

 
 
 
 

7. An ocean going ship of 6000 gross tons or above must be fitted with a standard discharge shore connection with dimensions outlined in Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) or be substituted with a __________.

 
 
 
 

8. According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), you are required to test cargo discharge piping every __________.

 
 
 
 

9. Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR Part 156), state that no person may transfer oil to or from a vessel unless

 
 
 
 

10. Which of the following statements is true concerning oil transfer connections?

 
 
 
 

11. According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), who makes the final decision of when oil transfer may begin?

 
 
 
 

12. In order for you to operate your vessel's crude oil wash system, the cargo tanks to be washed must be __________.

 
 
 
 

13. Both crude oil washing and water washing use direct impingement to remove residue from tanks. Crude oil washing has an additional advantage, in utilizing __________.

 
 
 
 

14. Bottom mounted crude oil washing machines are primarily used for _________.

 
 
 
 

15. When tanks have been washed with crude oil, and ballasted without being water rinsed, the ballast is referred to as _________.

 
 
 
 

16. Crude oil washing has which of the following disadvantages?

 
 
 
 

17. On a tanker vessel, what is the required combined capacity of the inert gas generating system as compared to the total capacity of all the cargo pumps which can be operated simultaneously?

 
 
 
 

18. Inert gas systems fitted on tank vessels must be fitted with an alarm to give an audible and visual warning when the oxygen content of the inert gas exceeds __________.

 
 
 
 

19. Which of the following methods is used to supply inert gas from a flue gas system to the cargo tanks?

 
 
 
 

20. Which of the following represents the maximum percent of oxygen, by volume, required to be achieved by a ship's inert gas system, prior to the commencement of crude oil tank washing?

 
 
 
 

21. The primary function of a "flue gas type" inert gas system is to _________.

 
 
 
 

22. Which of the following conditions will result in an automatic shut down of the flue gas inert gas system?

 
 
 
 

23. When securing the operation of an inert gas system, the final step should be _________.

 
 
 
 

24. As Chief Engineer or First Assistant Engineer you should be familiar with the six motions of a vessel. Which of these motions affects the governing "positional motion" stability?

 
 
 
 

25. As Chief Engineer or First Assistant Engineer you should be familiar with the six motions of a vessel. Which of these motions affects the governing "longitudinal" stability?

 
 
 
 

26. As Chief Engineer or First Assistant Engineer you should be familiar with the six motions of a vessel. Which of these motions affects the governing "lateral motion" stability?

 
 
 
 

27. As Chief Engineer or First Assistant Engineer you should be familiar with the six motions of a vessel. Which of these motions affects the governing "motion ahead and astern" stability?

 
 
 
 

28. By what method is the final light ship weight, longitudinal and vertical centers of gravity of a vessel, and final assignment of the load lines determined?

 
 
 
 

29. As Chief Engineer of an ocean going passenger vessel, it is important to know the effect of trim and stability of your ship in the event of damage to a compartment. To minimize the impact of flooding in the event of a grounding, what should be your ship's safe practice regarding watertight doors and hatches?

 
 
 
 

30. As Chief Engineer you should understand the fundamental principles of ship construction and theory and factors affecting trim and stability, including the concept of loll and its cause. An angle of loll is commonly caused by which of the following conditions?

 
 
 
 

31. As Chief Engineer you should understand the concept of loll and its cause. An angle of loll is commonly caused by which of the following conditions?

 
 
 
 

32. IMO Resolution A167, 1968, Res. No. 749(18) 3.1 (1995, amended 1999), and section 2.2 in the 2008 IS Code, sets the general criterion for vessels of more than 100 meters in length. Your vessel is covered by this regulation. In review of your vessels stability data, after refueling you notice that the GM of the vessel is less than the required 0.15 meters. What should you instruct the 2nd engineer to do with the fuel just received?

 
 
 
 

33. After refueling your vessel you notice that the GM of the vessel is less than the required 0.15 meters. What do you do?

 
 
 
 

34. The distance between the bottom of the hull and the waterline is called __________.

 
 
 
 

35. After transferring a weight forward on a vessel, the draft at the center of flotation will __________.

 
 
 
 

36. Many uninspected motor vessels require load lines. For the purpose of the Load Line Regulations, the term 'surveyor' means __________.

 
 
 
 

37. With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the

 
 
 
 

38. A vessel's center of gravity is lowered when the __________.

 
 
 
 

39. The important stability parameter 'KG' is defined as the __________.

 
 
 
 

40. As Chief Engineer you should understand the concept of corrective measures and their purpose. The following four actions will have which affect on the vessel? 1) Add weight low and symmetrically about the center line. 2) Remove high weight symmetrically. 3) Move weight down symmetrically. 4) Eliminate any free surface present

 
 
 
 

41. As Chief Engineer your vessel has been damaged and one compartment has partially flooded. The vessel has free communication with the sea with water flowing in and out as the vessel rolls. The most important factor contributing to free communication loss of stability is which of the following?

 
 
 
 

42. When a vessel is inclined, the tendency for it to return to its original position is caused by the

 
 
 
 

43. The center of volume of the immersed portion of the vessel is the __________.

 
 
 
 

44. The water in which a vessel floats provides vertical upward support. The point through which this support is assumed to act is known as the center of __________.

 
 
 
 

45. Which abbreviation represents the height of the center of buoyancy?

 
 
 
 

46. As Chief Engineer your vessel has been damaged and one compartment has partially flooded. You understand that you have lost buoyancy and have added weights. If transverse stability in the flooded condition is poor or negative, every effort should be made to reduce the free surface and to lower the center of gravity. Of main importance is for you to assure which of the following is maintained?

 
 
 
 

47. If your vessel has a starboard list after taking on fuel, you would transfer fuel __________.

 
 
 
 

48. The difference between the initial trim of a vessel and the trim after a change in load has occurred is known as __________.

 
 
 
 

49. For a vessel with a block coefficient of 1, the addition of weight at the center of flotation will

 
 
 
 

50. The difference between the starboard and port drafts caused by a transverse shift in weight is called

 
 
 
 

51. The difference between the starboard and port drafts due to wind or seas is called __________.

 
 
 
 

52. As an engineer, you should be familiar with the conditions that will cause a vessel to transversely incline, list, or trim. Which of the following conditions causes a vessel to trim?

 
 
 
 

53. While serving as Chief Engineer on a partially loaded container ship the vessel is involved in a collision. An empty starboard side wing tank becomes open to the sea and the ship takes a starboard list. After investigating the damage it is found that no other adjoining tanks are open to the sea. What action should be recommended to ensure the ship maintains an even keel position?

 
 
 
 

54. As 1st A/E on a large container vessel you should be familiar with the vessel's stability and the concepts of same. Regarding trimming of a vessel, and the location of the LCG, LCB and LCF, in which direction, and about which point, will the vessel trim based upon their relative locations? (See Illustration) Illustration RP014

 
 
 
 

55. Reducing the free surfaces within a vessel, reduces the __________.

 
 
 
 

56. A vessel's stability is greatly reduced by liquid free surface. Which of the listed conditions would develop the greatest adverse effect?

 
 
 
 

57. Adverse effects due to free surface will result when __________.

 
 
 
 

58. Your vessel has been damaged in a grounding and one compartment has partially flooded. As a result, you have lost buoyancy. If transverse stability in the flooded condition is poor or negative, every effort should be made to reduce the free surface and to lower the center of gravity. Which of the following should you ensure is maintained?

 
 
 
 

59. A vessel which is subjected to 'sagging' __________.

 
 
 
 

60. A ballast tank is one-third full when additional ballast is added until it is two-thirds full. The increased amount of liquid in the tank will have the greatest influence on the __________.

 
 
 
 

61. You can generally improve the vessel's stability in a hazardous situation by __________.

 
 
 
 

62. The factor contributing to the greatest effect on the ship's period of roll is the __________.

 
 
 
 

63. The 2nd assistant engineer has just finished fueling operations. After entering the fuel data into the loading computer you notice a greater than allowable at-sea bending stress. After the chief mate checks the voyage cargo data the vessel still has an excessive at-sea hogging bending stress. As Chief Engineer and after consulting with the Chief Mate, what should your instructions be to reduce the bending moment when ballasting the vessel?

 
 
 
 

64. The horizontal port, or starboard movement of a vessel is called __________.

 
 
 
 

65. Pitching is the rising and falling motion of the bow of a ship oscillating about which axis?

 
 
 
 

66. The 3rd engineer on watch reports than the ship has an erratic rolling behavior and it does not appear to stabilize at an even keel position. As Chief Engineer, after consultation with the Chief Mate, what instruction would you give him?

 
 
 
 

67. The device used for preventing the passage of flames into enclosed spaces is called a __________.

 
 
 
 

68. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), require electric hand lamps, approved for use in fuel tanks, to be battery powered and __________.

 
 
 
 

69. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that lifejackets shall be __________.

 
 
 
 

70. What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is required to last?

 
 
 
 

71. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), the fuel tanks of motor-propelled lifeboats shall be __________.

 
 
 
 

72. According to 46 CFR part 95, which of the listed fire extinguishers would be considered hand portable/semi portable and capable of combating a class "B" fire?

 
 
 
 

73. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), portable and semi-portable fire extinguishers are classified by a letter and numeric designator. The letter designation indicates__________.

 
 
 
 

74. If the empty weight of a B-III semi-portable CO2 fire extinguisher is 35 lbs (15.9 kg), what is its full charged weight?

 
 
 
 

75. Fire doors are released by a/an __________.

 
 
 
 

76. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the firefighting devices listed is not permitted for use in the engine room?

 
 
 
 

77. The discharge side of every fire pump must be provided with a __________.

 
 
 
 

78. A fireman's outfit carried onboard cargo vessels, must have a __________.

 
 
 
 

79. A fire main system must have enough fire hydrants for each accessible space to be reached with __________.

 
 
 
 

80. Fire main shore connections on a 1,000 gross ton cargo vessel are required by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) to be provided with __________.

 
 
 
 

81. According to 46 CFR Part 95, which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the regulations pertaining to the carbon dioxide cylinder room for a CO2 fixed fire extinguishing system?

 
 
 
 

82. The carbon dioxide cylinders of a fixed fire extinguishing system may be located inside the protected space if the quantity of CO2 required to protect that space is not more than __________.

 
 
 
 

83. When a cylinder is used to store CO2 in a fixed firefighting system and is retested in accordance with regulations, all flexible connections between cylinders and distribution piping must be renewed or tested at __________.

 
 
 
 

84. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), which of the following statements is true concerning fixed carbon dioxide fire extinguishing systems?

 
 
 
 

85. Carbon dioxide cylinders must be recharged when the cylinder charge weight is less than what percent of the stamped full weight charge?

 
 
 
 

86. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), require a fixed foam extinguishing system on cargo and miscellaneous vessels to meet which of the following requirements?

 
 
 
 

87. According to 46 CFR's, a fixed foam system aboard a tank vessel constructed in 1968, must be designed to supply foam for a minimum of __________.

 
 
 
 

88. When the machinery spaces on a tank vessel are protected by a fixed foam extinguishing system, what additional protection is required by Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) outside of the machinery space entrance?

 
 
 
 

89. If a fixed fire extinguishing system is installed on any vessel, it must be of a type approved by the __________.

 
 
 
 

90. When fire detecting systems, fire extinguishing systems, and associated equipment are not required by the Coast Guard but are installed on a cargo vessel at the option of the vessel's owner, they __________.

 
 
 

91. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) state that where reasonable and practicable, the steam pressure in a steam smothering system should be at least __________.

 
 
 
 

92. The Federal Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR) that apply to ships are enforced by the __________.

 
 
 
 

93. According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), the "Discharge of Oil Prohibited" placard is required on all __________.

 
 
 
 

94. If a vessel moored at a U.S. terminal does not comply with Coast Guard Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), it may be detained by the __________.

 
 
 
 

95. Where are "prohibited oil spaces" specified in the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR)?

 
 
 
 

96. The term "oil", as used in the Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR), means __________.

 
 
 
 

97. The term "discharge", as it applies to the pollution regulations, means __________.

 
 
 
 

98. According to Coast Guard Regulations (CFR 33), all ships are required to prepare, submit, and maintain a(an) __________.

 
 
 
 

99. According to 33 CFR's, the approval period for a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan expires after __________.

 
 
 
 

100. A new ocean going ship of 2000 gross tons having an inoperative oily water separator may dispose of its bilge slops by __________.

 
 
 
 


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