Assessment Test

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1. Each emergency generator on a mobile offshore drilling unit, when tested, must be run under a full load for at least __________.


2. If water hammer is about to take place, it can be avoided by __________.


3. The proper time for operating the crankcase door when oil mist alarm is activated and the engine has been stopped is __________.


4. Prior to engaging the turning gear, precautions should be taken to __________.


5. A health hazard, listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), that can cause cancer in exposed individuals is called a __________.


6. If the cotton cover of a fire hose becomes oily or greasy, it should be washed with a solution of mild soapy freshwater and a__________.


7. The fusible link fire dampers are operated by__________.


8. The fire hose is subject to damage if the swivel on the female coupling is lubricated with __________.


9. The least likely to cause the ignition of fuel vapors is __________.


10. During emergency welding repairs must be made to the upper area of a fuel tank, the tank and/or adjacent compartments may need to be __________.


11. Proper effective warming treatment for a crew member suffering from hypothermia is __________.


12. Fire may be spread by means of __________


13. Not suitable for fighting a liquid paint fire is __________.


14. The location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on tanker vessels, mostly be __________.


15. First device to be utilized to tackle a galley grease fire is ___________.


16. First thing you should do when a person is lying prone, not breathing and an electric wire is touching the victim is to __________.


17. The method in controlling external bleeding is to __________.


18. What is the difference between the initial trim of a vessel and the trim after alter in load occurred?


19. What is the major cause of shock in burn victims?


20. Mandatory on the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan is __________.


21. Where will you check the number of portable fire extinguishers required on a vessel?


22. The firefighting agents that produces a buoyant blanket to separate the burning vapors from air is __________


23. First response you should do while you are fighting a fire in a smoke-filled compartment and one of your shipmates falls sustaining a severe laceration and ceases breathing is to _________.


24. The cause of chemical burns is by the skin coming in contact with _________.


25. To activate an air regeneration canister on a survival craft, you __________.


26. The air regeneration canister on a survival craft is designed to __________.


27. The air regeneration canister on a survival craft should last approximately __________.


28. When abandoning a MODU, following the launching of the survival craft you should __________.


29. In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the survival craft __________.


30. At a speed of six knots the fuel aboard a survival craft should last __________.


31. When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air, they are used for __________.


32. With the air supply on, the air pressure in the survival craft will be __________.


33. An “on-load” release system on a survival craft means, the cable can be released __________.


34. The “off-load” release system on a survival craft is designed to be activated __________.


35. When inspecting a survival craft, you should check to make sure that the __________.


36. Aboard a survival craft, ether can be used to __________.


37. A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a reddening of the skin but no other apparent damage. This is an example of what kind of burn?


38. First, second, and third degree burns are classified according to __________.


39. When treating a person for third degree burns, you should __________.


40. For small first degree burns the quickest method to relieve pain is to __________.


41. A victim has suffered a second degree burn to a small area of the lower arm. Which of the following statements represents the proper treatment for this injury?


42. Surface burns should first be treated by __________.


43. If a crewman suffers a second degree burn on the arm, you should __________.


44. In treating a person for extensive first or second degree thermal burns it is important to prevent or reduce __________.


45. A minor heat burn of the eye should be treated by __________.


46. Severe airway burns will cause __________.


47. The first action in the treatment of a person suspected of having airway burns is to __________.


48. If a boiler has been laid up dry for an extended period, it will be unsafe to enter the steam and water drum immediately after it has been opened, as there may be __________.


49. When treating a chemical burn, you should flood the burned area for at least __________.


50. Chemical burns are caused by the skin coming in contact with __________.


51. Which of the following precautions should be taken when treating burns caused by contact with dry lime?


52. If a person is unconscious as a result of an electric shock, you should first remove the victim from the electrical source and then __________.


53. Since electrical burn victims have been subjected to electric shock, the first medical response is to check for __________.


54. When a rescuer discovers an electrical burn victim in the vicinity of electrical equipment or wiring, his first step is to __________.


55. Treatment of heat exhaustion should consist of __________.


56. Which of the listed conditions is a symptom of sun stroke?


57. Treatment of sunstroke consists principally of__________.


58. A crew member has suffered possible frostbite to the toes of both feet. You should __________.


59. The most effective warming treatment for a crew member suffering from hypothermia is __________.


60. A crew member suffering from generalized hypothermia should be given __________.


61. If a crew member faints, you should __________.


62. Which of the following should not be done for a person who has fainted?


63. The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is a/an __________.


64. A reproductive health hazard, listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), that can damage the fetus during development is called a __________.


65. An unconscious person should not be __________.


66. Which of the following should not be used as a treatment for a person who has received a head injury and is groggy or unconscious?


67. A crewman has suffered a blow to the head and various symptoms indicate a concussion. Proper treatment should include __________.


68. If someone suffers a heart attack and has ceased breathing, you should __________.


69. A person suffering from a heart attack may show not which of the following symptoms?


70. Which of the following machinery space operations is required to be logged in the Oil Record Book?


71. Requirements for hydrogen sulfide preparation and equipment usage aboard MODUs in U.S. offshore waters are administered by the __________.


72. Part of the required equipment for a lifeboat does not includes __________.


73. What is the percentage of oxygen in a typical sample of uncontaminated air?


74. For an upright vessel, draft is the vertical distance between the keel and the __________.


75. Clean air standards, referred to as 'Grade D', apply to compressed air for use in __________.


76. Each ventilation system for an enclosed classified location on a MODU must provide a complete change of air every __________.


77. When amendments are made to the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan, all revisions must be submitted to the Coast Guard __________.


78. The Oil Record Book must be maintained onboard the vessel for __________.


79. On a MODU, if there is a probability of encountering hydrogen sulfide during the drilling of a well, air movers (bug blowers) should be installed to dilute the concentration of gas at the __________.


80. According to 33 CFR's, the approval period for a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan expires after __________.


81. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), the fuel tanks of motor-propelled lifeboats shall be __________.


82. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 92), a bulkhead capable of preventing the passage of smoke and flame for one hour would be classified as a/an __________.


83. The average of the observed drafts is known as __________.


84. Each hose in the fuel transfer system for helicopter refueling must meet the standards of the __________.


85. Each hose in the fuel transfer system for helicopter refueling must have a __________.


86. A cutoff valve in the fire main system of a MODU may be closed to protect a portion of the system on an exposed deck from __________.


87. When flooding occurs in a damaged vessel, reserve buoyancy __________.


88. The vertical distance between G and M of a MODU is used as a measure of __________.


89. A shipboard oil pollution emergency plan is required of__________.


90. Each life-raft container without an indicated maximum stowage height above the waterline, must be stowed at a height not more than __________.


91. Of the required ring life buoys for a MODU, how many must be equipped with a water light?


92. Reserve buoyancy is the __________.


93. When making entries in the Oil Record Book, the date, operational code, and item number shall be inserted in the appropriate columns. Furthermore, the required particulars shall be __________.


94. Adding the transverse free surface correction to the uncorrected height of the center of gravity of a MODU yields __________.


95. Which of the toxic gases listed is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment?


96. On a MODU, how many ring buoys are required to have a buoyant line attached?


97. What is the minimum required number of ring life buoys on a MODU?


98. Spontaneous combustion is most likely to occur in __________.


99. The person-in-charge of a MODU shall insure that the fuel tank of each motor-propelled lifeboat is emptied, and the fuel is changed at least once every __________.


100. How often must the emergency generator be tested on a mobile offshore drilling unit?


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