Assessment Test


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1. A tapered shank drill is removed from the drill press spindle with a __________.

 
 
 
 

2. Before drilling a hole in a piece of metal, the location of the hole center should be __________.

 
 
 
 

3. Which of the listed metals can usually be drilled without lubrication?

 
 
 
 

4. If the speed of a drill is too great, the drill will __________.

 
 
 
 

5. Before boring a blind tapered hole, a good shop practice to follow is to __________.

 
 
 
 

6. The action necessary to use the steering gear room trick wheel when transferring the steering control from the wheelhouse to local control, is to __________.

 
 
 
 

7. Rudder position is shown on the bridge by the __________.

 
 
 
 

8. When the helm angle position is changed, the series of corresponding events of the steering gear will include __________. I. rate of steering gear ram movement will be proportional to amount of helm angle input II. degree of tilting plate (box) angle will be proportional to the amount of helm angle input

 
 
 
 

9. Hydraulically, servo-operated, automatic, change over valves, utilized in a two ram hydraulic steering gear, serve to __________.

 
 
 
 

10. In an electro-hydraulic steering system, damage due to rudder shock is prevented by

 
 
 
 

11. In terms of ship construction framing methods, which statement is true concerning the transverse framing system?

 
 
 
 

12. In terms of ship construction framing methods, what statement is true concerning the longitudinal framing system?

 
 
 
 

13. What statement is true concerning the plating meeting at the gunwales of a ship?

 
 
 
 

14. With a ship built with a transverse framing system, by what means are double-bottom floors and the transverse frames joined?

 
 
 
 

15. For a typical transverse-framed deep-draft commercial vessel, what is the normal arrangement for the support of decks?

 
 
 
 

16. What is another name for the "collision" bulkhead?

 
 
 
 

17. What term is used to represent the bulkhead type used for tank boundary bulkheads?

 
 
 
 

18. Which of the following listed bulkhead types has the most rigorous standard for testing purposes?

 
 
 
 

19. What statement is true concerning the construction of watertight bulkheads?

 
 
 
 

20. What is the name of the structural member that is designed to transfer load from one deck to another?

 
 
 
 

21. What statement is true concerning watertight doors fitted below the waterline of a vessel?

 
 
 
 

22. What means of emergency escape from a shaft tunnel are provided?

 
 
 
 

23. What statement is true concerning the forward and after bulkheads of a shaft tunnel?

 
 
 
 

24. What is the arrangement of a shaft tunnel as fitted on a single-screw vessel?

 
 
 
 

25. What is the general arrangement for bilge wells in the machinery spaces?

 
 
 
 

26. What provisions are generally made to reduce the noise and vibration emanating from the propulsion machinery installation, especially on passenger ships?

 
 
 
 

27. What is the name associated with the dividing bulkheads separating the accommodation spaces from the engine room of a ship?

 
 
 
 

28. What is the name associated with the surround and support for the various uptakes to ensure the dispersion of exhaust gases to the atmosphere and away from the ship?

 
 
 
 

29. What is the name associated with a minor section of interior deck within a machinery space serving as a seat or bed for a particular piece or set of machinery?

 
 
 
 

30. When making welding repairs to a ship's structural member, why is it important to avoid weld faults?

 
 
 
 

31. When accomplishing welding repairs with an electric arc welding process, what is generally the cause of slag inclusion when welding a single-V butt joint?

 
 
 
 

32. When accomplishing welding repairs using the electric arc welding process, what statement is true concerning the characteristics of a good quality weld when welding a single-V butt joint?

 
 
 
 

33. When accomplishing welding repairs using the electric arc welding process, what statement is true concerning the characteristics of a good quality weld when welding a single-V butt joint?

 
 
 
 

34. When accomplishing welding repairs using the electric arc welding process, what statement is true concerning the characteristics of a good quality weld when welding a single-V butt joint?

 
 
 
 

35. Before welding repairs are performed to repair a crack, what is the correct procedure for performing an emergency crack stopper?

 
 
 
 

36. Before welding repairs are performed to repair a crack, after drilling a 3/8-inch hole at each end of the crack, what is the correct procedure for welding overlays as an emergency crack stopper?

 
 
 
 

37. In order to minimize distortion while performing the electric arc welding process while joining two plates with a butt weld, besides using restraint procedures, what statement is true?

 
 
 
 

38. For long welding runs, either the "back-step" or the "skip" welding technique is often used. For what purpose are these techniques utilized?

 
 
 
 

39. If a welding fabrication becomes unacceptably distorted, what means of distortion correction should be avoided?

 
 
 
 

40. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, for vessels of 400 gross tons and above which are all required to carry an oily-water separator to process bilge slops, what is the design criteria in terms of maximum oil content of the overboard discharge?

 
 
 
 

41. In accordance with federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, for U.S non- oceangoing ships, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops?

 
 
 
 

42. In accordance with federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, for oceangoing ships of less than 400 gross tons, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops?

 
 
 
 

43. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, for oceangoing ships of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops?

 
 
 
 

44. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, for oceangoing ships of 10,000 gross tons and above, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops?

 
 
 
 

45. In what part of 33CFR can be found the recordkeeping requirements for specific machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker that must be entered into an Oil Record Book?

 
 
 
 

46. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal regulations in 33CFR Subchapter O, specific machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker must be documented in an Oil Record Book. This includes disposal of oil residues and overboard discharge of bilge water that has accumulated in machinery spaces, as well as other operations. Who is responsible for signing the Oil Record Book entry for the specific operation?

 
 
 
 

47. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal regulations in 33CFR Subchapter O, specific machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker must be documented in an Oil Record Book. Which of the listed machinery space operations must be documented in the Oil Record Book?

 
 
 
 

48. In accordance with the federal regulations in 33CFR Subchapter O, continuing violations of The Federal Water Pollution Control Act and international MARPOL regulations may constitute separate violations subject to civil penalties. Which of the following statements is true?

 
 
 
 

49. In accordance with the federal regulation in 33CFR Subchapter O, which discharge of oil or oily mixture to sea is permissible?

 
 
 
 

50. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the discharge of what category of garbage is prohibited in any waters?

 
 
 
 

51. (In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of all garbage applies to a vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the nearest land?

 
 
 
 

52. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of dunnage, lining, and packing materials that float applies to a vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the nearest land?

 
 
 
 

53. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of unground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery applies to a vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the nearest land?

 
 
 
 

54. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of ground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery applies to a vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the nearest land?

 
 
 
 

55. In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the discharge or disposal of garbage on vessels of 400 gross tons and above engaged in commerce requires recordkeeping. Which of the following discharge or disposal operations requires a detailed description of the contents of the garbage?

 
 
 
 

56. Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of the term "sewage"?

 
 
 
 

57. Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of a "Type I Marine Sanitation Device"?

 
 
 
 

58. Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of a "Type II Marine Sanitation Device"?

 
 
 
 

59. Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of a "Type III Marine Sanitation Device"?

 
 
 
 

60. Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, if a vessel equipped with a Type III Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the discharge of untreated sewage is prohibited, which of the following methods of securing the device to prevent the discharge of sewage is UNACCEPTABLE?

 
 
 
 

61. Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, if a vessel equipped with a Type II Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the discharge of treated or untreated sewage is prohibited, which of the following methods of securing the device to prevent the discharge of sewage is ACCEPTABLE if it is impractical to close the seacock and prevent its opening?

 
 
 
 

62. Under the international MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is less than 3 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true?

 
 
 
 

63. Under the international MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is more than 3, but less than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true?

 
 
 
 

64. Under the international MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is more than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true?

 
 
 
 

65. Which of the following fire extinguishing agents which may be found aboard ship is designated as an ozone-depleting substance as defined in the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer and is controlled as a result?

 
 
 
 

66. Which of the following refrigerants which may be found aboard ship is designated as an ozone-depleting substance as defined in the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer and is controlled as a result?

 
 
 
 

67. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the nitrous oxide (NOx) emissions associated with certain diesel engines are required to operate under certain acceptable limits. To which of the listed engine applications would the NOx emission regulations apply?

 
 
 
 

68. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the sulphur content of any fuel oil used on board ships shall not exceed what percentage by weight?

 
 
 
 

69. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, in the absence of an exhaust gas cleaning system, what is the maximum allowable sulphur content for a fuel to be burned while the ship is operating in an emissions control area?

 
 
 
 

70. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, which of the listed substances is prohibited from being burned in a shipboard incinerator?

 
 
 
 

71. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, which of the listed substances is prohibited from being burned in a shipboard incinerator?

 
 
 
 

72. In accordance with the international MARPOL AnnexVI regulations, what is the minimum allowable flue gas outlet temperature for a continuous-fed shipboard incinerator while in operation?

 
 
 
 

73. In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, what is a permissible alternative to burning oil residue sludge in an appropriate incinerator?

 
 
 
 

74. The main difference between a common lathe dog and a safety lathe dog is that the latter __________.

 
 
 
 

75. The taper produced by a lathe taper attachment is determined by setting the

 
 
 
 

76. Which of the following definitions accurately describes 'tool feed' when referring to lathe work?

 
 
 
 

77. If you are machining work held between lathe centers, and the lathe centers begin to squeal, you should first

 
 
 
 

78. For proper support when turning a long thin piece of work between lathe centers, you should use a __________.

 
 
 
 

79. A follower rest should be used with a lathe to machine __________.

 
 
 
 

80. Work that cannot readily be mounted between lathe centers is usually held in a __________.

 
 
 
 

81. A work piece has been mounted between centers and a test cut machined at each end to check alignment of the lathe centers. If the test cut on the tailstock end is deeper than the test cut on the headstock end, the tailstock must be moved __________.

 
 
 
 

82. Which of the lathe operations listed is best done with the carriage locked in position?

 
 
 
 

83. When drilling holes larger than 1/2 inch, drilling a smaller hole first is a good practice. This is called a pilot hole, and the pilot drill should have a diameter __________.

 
 
 
 

84. Which material can be drilled at the highest speed?

 
 
 
 

85. To drill a hole in round stock, perpendicular to the axis of the piece, the stock should be mounted in a __________.

 
 
 
 

86. When drilling blind holes with a standard drill press, the proper method of stopping the progress of the drill boring through the work is by __________.

 
 
 
 

87. One of the steps required to increase the drilling speed of a drill press is to

 
 
 
 


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