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1. One of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the discharge valve closed, is that the __________.

 
 
 
 

2. The emergency bilge suction valve is typically used __________.

 
 
 
 

3. Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through the bilge system is prevented by______________.

 
 
 
 

4. Under what conditions is it permissible to pump machinery space bilges directly overboard without processing by an oily water separator?

 
 
 
 

5. What is meant by the term independent bilge suction?

 
 
 
 

6. What is meant by the term emergency bilge suction?

 
 
 
 

7. Which of the following bilge pumping applications would most likely use a non-automated centrifugal pump under manual supervision?

 
 
 
 

8. Which of the following ballasting operations performed in conjunction with off-loading cargo could be accomplished without the use of a ballast pump?

 
 
 
 

9. Which of the following deballasting operations performed in conjunction with loading cargo could be accomplished without the use of a ballast pump?

 
 
 
 

10. With regard to a ballast system associated with a dry cargo ship, what is the primary purpose of the forepeak and aft peak tanks?

 
 
 
 

11. With regard to a ballast system associated with a dry cargo ship, what is the primary purpose of the double-bottom ballast tanks?

 
 
 
 

12. With regard to ballast system operations associated with a dry cargo ship, what is meant by the term "ballasting"?

 
 
 
 

13. With regard to ballast system operations associated with a dry cargo ship, what is meant by the term "deballasting"?

 
 
 
 

14. With regards to a ballast system associated with an oil tanker, what is meant by the term "segregated" ballast?

 
 
 
 

15. Besides retention of ballast water onboard or use of approved onboard ballast water treatment equipment, what is another acceptable means for a vessel to be in compliance with the ballast water management regulations?

 
 
 
 

16. What is the primary reason why the ballast water management regulations exist as applicable to vessels equipped with ballast tanks operating in U.S. waters?

 
 
 
 

17. After coolers are used with air compressors to __________.

 
 
 
 

18. If all of the air charge has been lost from a ship service air receiver, the compressor mechanical unloading system will __________.

 
 
 
 

19. Over pressurization of an air compressor intercooler is prevented by the __________.

 
 
 
 

20. The air charge leaving an intercooler, or after cooler of an air compressor can be expected to be __________.

 
 
 
 

21. Which of the listed valve types is typically used for suction and discharge valves on modern low pressure air compressors?

 
 
 
 

22. In order to distribute the side pressures over a wide area of the cylinder walls and liners, which of the listed types of pistons are used in modern low pressure air compressors?

 
 
 
 

23. Which of the following compressors would be used for a cold-ship start-up of a ship's service diesel generator on a motor ship?

 
 
 
 

24. Which of the following compressors on a motor ship would most likely operate at approximately 100 psig?

 
 
 
 

25. If an air compressor is fitted with a hand-off-auto (H-O-A) control station, what statement concerning operation is true?

 
 
 
 

26. If the drive belts on an air compressor were squealing during startup, you should __________.

 
 
 
 

27. If one drive belt on an air compressor is found to be worn you should __________.

 
 
 
 

28. The main bearings of a reciprocating air compressor are tapered roller bearings. When mounted, these bearings are given a 'cold' end clearance to __________.

 
 
 
 

29. After disassembly, the safest way to remove carbon deposits from air compressor inlet and discharge valves is to use __________.

 
 
 
 

30. How often should the air receivers on a compressed air system be drained of moisture and emulsions?

 
 
 
 

31. When checking the oil level on a reciprocating air compressor fitted with a dipstick, under what conditions should the oil level be checked?

 
 
 
 

32. As an indication that an air compressor air intake filter needs to be replaced or cleaned, what statement is true?

 
 
 
 

33. Which of the following statements represents the proper procedural sequence for adjusting the metering rate of an in-line lubricator as used in a ship's service air system hose station? Assume that the pressure regulator has been properly set.

 
 
 
 

34. Which of the following statements represents the proper criteria to decide when to drain a filter/moisture separator as used in a ship's service air system hose station?

 
 
 
 

35. In a twin-tower desiccant type air dryer using silica gel as an adsorbing agent, what is the procedure for rejuvenating the tower presently on service when the desiccant becomes saturated with moisture?

 
 
 
 

36. Excessively low air pressure occurring in the intercooler of a reciprocating air compressor is caused by __________.

 
 
 
 

37. A viscous film of oil collected between the valve face and seat of a low pressure reciprocating air compressor will __________.

 
 
 
 

38. Operating a reciprocating air compressor without an air filter will cause __________.

 
 
 
 

39. Which of the following problems would be the probable cause for the faulty operation of a reciprocating air compressor suction valve?

 
 
 
 

40. In a low pressure air compressor, the loss of volumetric efficiency normally results from __________.

 
 
 
 

41. Which of the following causes would most likely result in excessively high belt-driven reciprocating air compressor drive motor running current draw?

 
 
 
 

42. If a reciprocating air compressor was operating at a compression ratio that exceeded its design parameters, what would be the effect?

 
 
 
 

43. If a belt-driven reciprocating air compressor is operating at a lower than design displacement capacity (in cubic feet per minute), which of the following would be a cause?

 
 
 
 

44. If a reciprocating air compressor has cylinder suction or discharge valves that fail to properly seat, what statement is true concerning the result?

 
 
 
 

45. What statement is true concerning carbon deposit formation on reciprocating compressor cylinder valves?

 
 
 
 

46. Which of the listed central operating system types requires conversion of continuous analog signals from the sensing and transmitting devices to discrete bits of information that can be understood by the system computer for the purposes of processing and control.

 
 
 
 

47. What type of temperature transmitter would be most suitable for measuring running gear bearing temperatures in a diesel engine in that it requires no contact with the bearing?

 
 
 
 

48. What type of temperature transmitter would be most suitable for measuring diesel engine exhaust and boiler stack temperatures and generates its own electromotive force?

 
 
 
 

49. What is another name for the control mode used in a process control system that uses two-point control?

 
 
 
 

50. In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the action of measuring the difference between the actual result and the desired result and using that difference to drive the actual result toward the desired result?

 
 
 
 

51. In a closed-loop process control system, what statement concerning feedback is true as it relates to stability and the direction of error displacement?

 
 
 
 

52. In a closed-loop process control system featuring negative feedback, what is the function of the error detector within the controller?

 
 
 
 

53. What type of primary element for a pressure transmitter would be most suitable for measuring oil-fired boiler furnace and forced-draft pressures?

 
 
 
 

54. Which of the following rotational shaft speed sensors produces a digital signal?

 
 
 
 

55. Which of the following liquid level sensors would be most suitable for measuring the liquid level in a pressure vessel such a water-tube boiler steam drum?

 
 
 
 

56. Concerning the start-up of plain bearings utilizing the three modes of hydrodynamic lubrication, what is the correct sequence of modes from start-up through coming up to operational speed?

 
 
 
 

57. Which of the following bearing types would be an example of a rolling-element bearing which substitutes fluid friction for rolling contact friction?

 
 
 
 

58. Which of the following bearing types would be an example of a plain bearing which substitutes fluid friction for sliding friction?

 
 
 
 

59. Which of the following roller bearing types would be limited to radial thrust load applications?

 
 
 
 

60. What statement is true concerning the hydrostatic lubrication of plain bearings?

 
 
 
 

61. A dented race in an antifriction bearing could be caused by __________.

 
 
 
 

62. In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by __________.

 
 
 
 

63. Antifriction bearings can be removed undamaged from a shaft by using an arbor press, or wheel puller with a________.

 
 
 
 

64. After adding grease to a ball bearing with a handheld grease gun, you should __________.

 
 
 
 

65. A roller bearing should normally be filled to what fraction of its space cavity?

 
 
 
 

66. A ball or roller bearing has an interference fit with the shaft upon which it is being installed with a hydraulic or arbor press. Upon what surface should the sleeve of the press be applied?

 
 
 
 

67. A ball or roller bearing has an interference fit with the housing in which it is being installed with a hydraulic or arbor press. Upon what surface should the sleeve of the press be applied?

 
 
 
 

68. A roller bearing has an interference fit with the shaft upon which it is being installed. What thermal method of mounting the bearing would be most appropriate?

 
 
 
 

69. Rolling element bearings may experience fatigue failure after a length of service. What is the first evidence of the beginnings of fatigue failure?

 
 
 
 

70. What is the primary indication of a grease lubricated bearing that is over-lubricated in terms of the quantity of grease in the housing?

 
 
 
 

71. Which of the following statements concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps is true?

 
 
 
 

72. Regarding a freshwater generator of the reverse-osmosis type, what statement is true?

 
 
 
 

73. Reverse-osmosis freshwater generators usually feature multiple membrane modules, typically of the spiral-wound membrane type. How are these multiple membrane modules piped?

 
 
 
 

74. Regarding a reverse-osmosis type freshwater generator using multiple spiral-wound membrane modules, what statement is true?

 
 
 
 

75. To ensure potable water of drinking quality, chemical treatment is required for reverse- osmosis freshwater generators. What is the purpose of chemical pre-treatment?

 
 
 
 

76. Regarding the operating principle of a reverse-osmosis type freshwater generator, what statement is true?

 
 
 
 

77. Regarding the high-pressure pump of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, what statement is true?

 
 
 
 

78. For the successful operation of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, why is the high pressure pump required to operate in the 750 to 1200 psig range for a discharge pressure?

 
 
 
 

79. If the orifice in the loop seal of a flash evaporator were to become significantly enlarged through erosion, the

 
 
 
 

80. If the distilling plant first stage absolute pressure is higher than normal, while the second stage absolute pressure remains satisfactory, the probable fault is due to __________.

 
 
 
 

81. Scale formation in a flash-type evaporator is usually found in the __________.

 
 
 
 

82. On which of the following heated surfaces of a flash type evaporator would you be more likely to find soft scale formation?

 
 
 
 

83. Small droplets of water entrained in the flashed vapor produced in a flash-type evaporator are removed by the __________.

 
 
 
 

84. A vacuum is initially created in a flash type distilling plant by __________.

 
 
 
 

85. Early models of the flash-type evaporators used a separate shell-and-tube heat exchanger as the air ejector condenser. More recent models use a combined air ejector condenser with the __________.

 
 
 
 

86. The brine level in the second-stage of a flash-type evaporator is determined in part by the feed rate, the rate of evaporation in both stages, and the __________.

 
 
 
 

87. When securing a jacket-water heated submerged tube evaporator for an extended period of time, you should __________.

 
 
 
 

88. Which of the following acids is preferable and most commonly used for scale removal from the heating surfaces of the jacket-water heated submerged-tube evaporator?

 
 
 
 

89. For the successful operation of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, the setting of the brine back pressure regulator is critical. What statement regarding the set point of this regulator is true?

 
 
 
 

90. If a reverse-osmosis freshwater generating unit has a high salinity alarm associated with the freshwater outlet, what should be done?

 
 
 
 

91. What is the BEST indication that the pre-treatment filter (or filters) of a reverse- osmosis freshwater generator must be serviced by cleaning or replacement?

 
 
 
 

92. What component of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator could be isolated and replaced with the unit remaining in service?

 
 
 
 

93. What is the BEST indication that the membrane modules of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator must be serviced by flushing or cleaning?

 
 
 
 

94. Under what conditions would the pre-treatment capabilities of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator MOST likely be overloaded, and as a result, these conditions should generally be avoided?

 
 
 
 

95. What is the BEST indication that the membrane module is damaged and is no longer semi-permeable and allowing the solute to pass through?

 
 
 
 

96. When a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator is shutdown, what must be accomplished?

 
 
 
 

97. Which of the freshwater generators listed below is operated without a source of heat?

 
 
 
 

98. Which of the following freshwater generators has an operating principle that requires it to run under a substantially positive pressure?

 
 
 
 

99. In which of the following freshwater generators would an air ejector be unnecessary?

 
 
 
 

100. Which of the freshwater generators listed below requires a source of heat and evaporates sea water at a location other than a heat exchanger surface?

 
 
 
 

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