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1. If deck cargo is carried, it should be stowed so that it __________.


2. In firefighting, the term 'protecting exposures' means __________.


3. During cargo operations, a deck fire has occurred due to a leaking cargo line. You should FIRST


4. When fighting a shipboard fire, crew members securing doorways, hatches, and applying cooling water to adjacent decks and bulkheads, while monitoring the spread of heat and smoke, are setting a _________.


5. When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using an applicator and __________.


6. Which of the following statements represents the correct action to take when three crew members discover a fire?


7. If there has been a fire in a closed unventilated compartment it may be unsafe to enter because of __________.


8. When combating a major electrical fire at sea, the main consideration is __________.


9. The most important characteristic of a fire extinguishing agent to be used on electrical fires is for the agent to be __________.


10. Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires?


11. If a fire occurs in an electric cable, in which the inner layers of insulation, or the insulation covered by armor is burning, you should __________.


12. You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway, which smells like electrical insulation. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would be the lowest action priority? -


13. In fighting a fire in a fuel tank, the FIRST action you should attempt is to __________.


14. If a fire ignites in the engine room as a result of a high pressure fuel oil leak, you should FIRST


15. The longer an oil fire is permitted to burn, the __________.


16. The best means of combating an oil fire on the surface of the water surrounding a vessel tied to the pier is to use __________.


17. When fighting a liquefied natural gas fire, you should __________.


18. One of the main concerns when fighting a galley fire is __________.


19. In the event of an exhaust duct fire, most dry chemical and carbon dioxide galley range fixed extinguishing systems are automatically activated through the action of a stainless steel cable, spring and a __________.


20. The airborne concentrations of substances (such as hydrogen sulfide) under which nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed without adverse effects are called __________.


21. If flammable vapors have penetrated a gas free space, which of the following actions would be the most hazardous to perform?


22. A tank has been sealed and unventilated for a long period of time. Which of the following statements is true?


23. Before entering any space that has been sealed, its oxygen level should be tested. What level of oxygen in the space is equal to fresh air?


24. The reading of a combustible gas indicator indicates the percentage of the __________.


25. Combustible gas indicators incorporate the use of a/an __________.


26. Before entering a fuel tank that has been cleaned, it should be checked with an oxygen indicator and a/an __________.


27. An oxygen indicator will detect __________.


28. Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen indicators?


29. For hydrogen sulfide detection, sensitized tapes indicate the presence of this gas by means of discoloration of an exposed spot on the tape. The shade of the color on the spot depends upon the concentration of the gas and __________.


30. When required to work in an area where explosive gases may accumulate, you should use tools which are __________.


31. If you see an individual fall overboard, you should __________.


32. The worst atmospheric condition for dispersion of hydrogen sulfide is __________.


33. The explosive range of methane is 5% to 15% by volume in air. This means a vapor/air mixture of


34. Which of the following conditions is true concerning flammable liquid vapors with a concentration above the upper explosive limit?


35. The highest concentration of a harmful substance to which a person may be exposed without danger to health, is termed the __________.


36. By definition, an example of a flammable liquid is __________.


37. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), a flammable liquid with a Reid vapor pressure of 8 1/2 psi or less, and a flash point of 80°F or below, is a grade __________.


38. Which of the petroleum products listed has a flash point below 150°F?


39. The vapors given off by heated fuel oil are flammable, explosive, and __________.


40. When preparing to pump flammable liquids with a centrifugal pump, you should __________.


41. Bunker "C" is classified as a grade __________.


42. Which of the following is classified as a grade "E" combustible liquid?


43. Which of the following hazards is associated with the handling of petroleum products?


44. The explosive range of petroleum vapors when mixed with air is __________.


45. When checking the level of a volatile liquid in a tank on the weather deck of a tank vessel, you should position yourself __________.


46. Tankers carrying cryogenic cargoes, such as LNG, are fitted with gas detector systems alarmed at 30% of the lower explosive limit. If the gas detector alarms sounds, this means __________.


47. An LNG carrier has an approved type of gas detecting system to detect methane leaks in the


48. Span gas is used aboard liquefied natural gas carriers to __________.


49. Individuals who have consumed alcohol within 24 hours of exposure to H2S can tolerate


50. High concentrations of hydrogen sulfide gas are most dangerous to personnel because they can __________.


51. When pumping sour crude, which gas should be tested for prior to entering the cargo pump room to repair a leaking pump?


52. A high concentration of hydrogen sulfide gas is most likely to be found in which of the locations listed?


53. What information can be obtained from a marine chemist's certificate on a tank barge?


54. A tank or compartment is "gas free" when there is an absence of dangerous concentrations of __________.


55. A compartment is tested and found to contain 20.8% oxygen by volume, permissible concentrations of toxic materials, and concentrations of flammable gas just below the lower flammable limit. If the residues are not capable of producing toxic materials or flammable concentrations, what would be the designation listed on the marine chemist's certificate?


56. If, in a compartment or space, the gas or oxygen content is not within permissible concentration, and dangerous gases are either present, or may be produced by residues, what would be the safety designation listed on a marine chemist's certificate?


57. If emergency welding repairs must be made to the upper area of a fuel tank, the tank and/or adjacent compartments may need to be __________.


58. While in a foreign port, burning and welding repairs are to be carried out on a section of heating coil located in a tank having last contained a grade "D" product. Which of the following procedures should be followed when a certified marine chemist is not available?


59. A health hazard term listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) that indicates allergic-like reaction in some people after repeated exposure is __________.


60. If the chemical material is a mixture, what must the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) identify?


61. A specific document which identifies a chemical, and lists its physical properties, health hazards, required controls, firefighting procedures, cleanup methods, waste disposal, and the safe handling and storage requirements, is commonly called a __________.


62. A liquid, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), having a flash point below 100°F (37.78°C) is called a/an __________.


63. The physical data term on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) that indicates if the vapor formed by a material is lighter or heavier than air is called __________.


64. To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping system, you should FIRST __________.


65. Water ballast placed in a tank that has been crude oil washed, but not water rinsed, shall be regarded as __________.


66. After ballasting a fuel tank, which of the listed valves should you close FIRST?


67. In order to prevent the unnecessary release of hydrocarbons to atmosphere, when taking on departure ballast, one method used is to _________.


68. When discharging clean ballast, prior to entering the loading port, if the ballast is determined by the oil monitor to exceed 15 parts per million of oil, the deballasting must _________.


69. Victual waste is __________.


70. When dumping garbage into the sea, other than special areas, __________.


71. The amount of garbage disposed must be entered into the records maintained by each ship and stated in __________.


72. Which of the following statements is true concerning the overboard discharge of vessel sewage at sea? -


73. According to 33 CFR's, an oceangoing ship of over 400 gross tons must be fitted with a standard discharge shore connection. What size bolt circle diameter is required for this shore connection to transfer oily ballast to a shore side reception facility?


74. The most critical part of the bunkering operations, which can result in an oil spill, is when the


75. When the scuppers are plugged and an oil spill occurs on deck, you should __________.


76. Which of the precautions listed should be observed when taking on diesel fuel?


77. Your vessel is taking on bunkers from a shore side facility. If oil begins flowing from one tank vent, which of the following actions should be taken FIRST?


78. When should you expect to find an insulating flange in a fueling hose?


79. One consideration for determining the safest maximum rate at which bunker fuel may be received is by the __________.


80. As its temperature rises, the volume of fuel oil stored in a tank will __________.


81. To determine if all requirements of the Declaration of Inspection are met for oil transfer operations just prior to bunkering from a shore side facility, __________.


82. Why is it important for double bottom fuel oil tanks not to be topped off when loading fuel at cold temperatures?


83. An ullage reading is the distance from a given point at the __________.


84. As a precaution against oil spills when topping off fuel tanks, you should __________.


85. Where will you find the procedures for the reporting of oil discharge into the water?


86. During oil transfer operations, who would be responsible to guarantee that the posted transfer procedures are being followed?


87. A method NOT usually allowed for cleaning up oil spills would be the use of __________.


88. In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of straw or reclaimed paper fibers would be an example of which type of oil removal?


89. Small oil spills on deck can be prevented from contaminating any waters by __________.


90. Coast Guard regulations require a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan to be reviewed


91. Which of the following is a mandatory section of the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan?


92. When amendments are made to the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan, all revisions must be submitted to the Coast Guard


93. Which of the following is NOT required to be provided as part of the appendixes of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?


94. U.S. flag ships may obtain an Oil Record Book from the __________.


95. The Oil Record Book for all U.S. ships ________.


96. In the Oil Record Book, a comprehensive list of operational items are grouped into operational sections. Each section is codified by a/an __________.


97. The overall responsibility in maintaining the Oil Record Book is given to ________.


98. Each operation involving the transfer of oil or oily mixture that requires an entry in the OIL Record Book shall be fully recorded ________.


99. If an incorrect entry were made in the Oil Record Book, you should __________.


100. The most effective method of extinguishing a class "A" fire is by __________.


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