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1. Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a MODU must be stowed __________.


2. Adding the longitudinal free surface correction to the uncorrected height of the center of gravity of a MODU yields __________.


3. Why are flame screens on tank vents an important safety device?


4. A branch line valve of a fixed fire extinguishing system on a MODU must be marked with the __________.


5. By definition, spontaneous combustion is a result of __________.


6. If a crewman suffers a second degree burn on the arm, you should __________.


7. On a MODU, a cabinet or space containing the controls or valves for the fixed firefighting system must be __________.


8. In the absence of external forces, adding weight to one side of a floating vessel, will cause the vessel to __________.


9. Each completed page of the Oil Record Book must be signed by the __________.


10. Subtracting the height of the center of gravity corrected for transverse free surface effects from the height of the transverse metacenter of a MODU yields __________.


11. Flame screens must be maintained in good condition and fitted in the opening they protect in order to __________.


12. On a MODU, the locker or space containing the selfcontained breathing apparatus must be __________.


13. Each hand portable fire extinguisher carried on a MODU must be marked with __________.


14. Each emergency light on a MODU must be marked with __________.


15. In treating a person for extensive first or second degree thermal burns it is important to prevent or reduce __________.


16. The ballast in a tank which, since oil was last carried therein, has been so cleaned that effluent therefrom if it were discharged from a ship which is stationary into clean calm water on a clear day would not produce visible traces of oil on the surface of the water is called __________.


17. The ballast water introduced into a tank which is completely separated from the cargo oil and oil fuel system and which is permanently allocated to the carriage of ballast or to the carriage of ballast or cargoes other than oil or noxious liquid substance as defined in Annex I is called __________.


18. The ratio of the volume within that space which is assumed to be occupied by water to the total volume of that space is called __________.


19. The displacement of a ship in tons without cargo, fuel, lubricating oil, ballast water, fresh water and feed water in tanks, consumable stores, and passengers and crew and their effects is called __________.


20. The difference in tons between the displacement of a ship in water of a relative density of 1.025 at the load waterline corresponding to the assigned summer freeboard and the lightweight of the ship is called __________.


21. On tanker ships, the capacity of the slop tank shall not be less than __________.


22. All boilers, all parts of machinery, all steam, hydraulic, pneumatic and other systems and their associated fittings which are under internal pressure shall be __________.


23. In subdivision, watertight and weathertight integrity of passenger ships and cargo ships other than tanker, what is fitted extending from the collision bulkhead to the after peak bulkhead as far as this is practicable and compatible with the design and proper working of the ship?


24. A double bottom need not be fitted in ways of watertight tanks, including dry tanks of moderate size, provided the safety of the ship is not impaired in the event of __________.


25. In ships construction, structure, stability and installation the termed used that in any sea conditions water will not penetrate into the ship is called __________.


26. Having a scantlings and arrangement capable of preventing the passage of water in any direction under the head of water likely to occur in intact and damaged condition is called __________.


27. Hydrostatic pressure for which each structure or appliance assumed watertight in the intact and damage stability calculation is designed to withstand is known as/a __________.


28. A line parallel to the slope of the keel passing amidship through the top of the keel at centreline or line of intersection of the inside of shell plating with the keel if a bar keel extend below that line is called __________.


29. The equipment by which orders are transmitted from the navigational bridge to the steering gear power unit is called __________.


30. The equipment other than any part of the main steering gear necessary to steer the ship in the event of failure of the main steering gear but not including the tiller, quadrant or components serving the same purpose is called __________.


31. The difference in tons between the displacement of a ship in water of a specific gravity of 1.025 at the draught corresponding to the assigned summer freeboard and the lightweight of the ship is called __________.


32. The vertical distance from the keel line at mid-length to the waterline in question is called __________.


33. The waterline which corresponds to the summer load line draught of the ship is called __________.


34. The greatest moulded breadth of the ship at or below the deepest subdivision draught is called __________.


35. The waterline which corresponds to the summer load line draught of the ship is called __________.


36. The forward perpendicular as defined in the International convention on load line in force is called __________.


37. The aft limit of the subdivision length is called __________.


38. The forward limit of the subdivision length is called __________.


39. A condition under which the main propulsion plant, boiler, and auxiliaries are not in operation due to the absence of power is known as/a __________.


40. The greatest speed which the ship is designed to maintain in service at sea at the deepest seagoing draught is called __________.


41. The hydraulic equipment provided for supplying power to turn the rudder stock, comprising a steering gear power unit together with the associated pipes and fittings and a rudder actuator is called __________.


42. The speed which it is estimated the ship can attain at the designed maximum astern power at the deepest seagoing draught is called __________.


43. As far as practicable, tanks and subdivision tanks having a length of less than 35 meters shall be served by at least __________.


44. Each cargo hold shall be provided with at least two means of access as far apart as practicable, these accesses should be arranged diagonally, meaning __________.


45. In order to protect flooding, bilge wells in periodically unattended machinery spaces shall be located and monitored in such a way that the accumulation of liquid is detected at normal angles of trim and heel, and shall be large enough to accommodate easily the __________.


46. On ships where bilge pumps are capable of being started automatically, means shall be provided to indicate when the influx of liquid is greater than the pump capacity or when the pump is __________.


47. Bulk carrier of 150 meters in length and upward of single-side skin construction, designed to carry solid bulk cargoes having a density of 1,000 kg/m³ and above, shall, when loaded to the Summer Load Line, be able to withstand flooding of any one cargo hold in all loading conditions and remain afloat in a/an __________.


48. The trim of a vessel usually refers to __________.


49. The stability of the vessel can be adversely affected by the __________.


50. Which of the following machinery space operations is required to be logged in the Oil Record Book?


51. In firefighting, the term “protecting exposures” means __________.


52. Requirements for hydrogen sulfide preparation and equipment usage aboard MODUs in U.S. offshore waters are administered by the __________.


53. Where are self-closing doors required on a MODU?


54. Part of the required equipment for a lifeboat includes the following, except __________.


55. What is the percentage of oxygen in a typical sample of uncontaminated air?


56. A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a reddening of the skin but no other apparent damage. This is an example of what kind of burn?


57. Chemical foam is most suitable for use on a fire involving __________.


58. For an upright vessel, draft is the vertical distance between the keel and the __________.


59. Which of the following operations aboard a tanker must not be recorded in the Oil Record Book on a tank-to- tank basis according to Coast Guard Regulations?


60. Fuel oil tank vents must be fitted with corrosion resistant screens to prevent __________.


61. Clean air standards, referred to as “Grade D”, apply to compressed air for use in __________.


62. Each ventilation system for an enclosed classified location on a MODU must provide a complete change of air every __________.


63. Which of the following statements is true regarding the operational testing and inspecting of a cargo vessel's lifesaving equipment by the ship's force?


64. When amendments are made to the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan, all revisions must be submitted to the Coast Guard __________.


65. First, second, and third degree burns are classified according to __________.


66. Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF), commonly known as “light water”, is especially suitable for fighting __________.


67. The Oil Record Book must be maintained onboard the vessel for __________.


68. The Upper Explosive Limit (UEL) of a mixture of flammable vapors and air, is defined as __________.


69. On a MODU, if there is a probability of encountering hydrogen sulfide during the drilling of a well, air movers (bug blowers) should be installed to dilute the concentration of gas at the __________.


70. According to 33 CFR's, the approval period for a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan expires after __________.


71. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), the fuel tanks of motor-propelled lifeboats shall be __________.


72. When treating a person for third degree burns, you should __________.


73. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR Part 92), a bulkhead capable of preventing the passage of smoke and flame for one hour would be classified as a/an __________.


74. The average of the observed drafts is known as __________.


75. U.S. flag ships may obtain an Oil Record Book from the __________.


76. A fire is considered “under control” when __________.


77. The hand brake of a lifeboat winch is __________.


78. Each hose in the fuel transfer system for helicopter refueling must meet the standards of the __________.


79. Each hose in the fuel transfer system for helicopter refueling must have a __________.


80. The centrifugal brake mechanism incorporated in a lifeboat handling winch is intended to __________.


81. For small first degree burns the quickest method to relieve pain is to __________.


82. A cutoff valve in the fire main system of a MODU may be closed to protect a portion of the system on an exposed deck from __________.


83. When flooding occurs in a damaged vessel, reserve buoyancy __________.


84. The vertical distance between "G" and "M" of a MODU is used as a measure of __________.


85. A device for preventing sparks or flames from entering a tank, while permitting the free passage of gases is called a __________.


86. A shipboard oil pollution emergency plan is required of __________.


87. For a MODU not on an international voyage, an approved substitute for an impulse projected rocket type line throwing appliance is a __________.


88. Each liferaft container without an indicated maximum stowage height above the waterline, must be stowed at a height not more than __________.


89. An inflatable liferaft should be lifted back aboard the ship by using __________.


90. A victim has suffered a second degree burn to a small area of the lower arm. Which of the following statements represents the proper treatment for this injury?


91. Of the required ring life buoys for a MODU, how many must be equipped with a water light?


92. Reserve buoyancy is the __________.


93. When making entries in the Oil Record Book, the date, operational code, and item number shall be inserted in the appropriate columns. Furthermore, the required particulars shall be __________.


94. Adding the transverse free surface correction to the uncorrected height of the center of gravity of a MODU yields __________.


95. Which of the toxic gases listed is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment?


96. On a MODU, how many ring buoys are required to have a buoyant line attached?


97. What is the minimum required number of ring life buoys on a MODU?


98. Spontaneous combustion is most likely to occur in __________.


99. Surface burns should first be treated by __________.


100. The difference between the average of the forward and aft drafts is __________.


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